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Microbiology

Opportunistic infections: connect immune risk to the affected organ

Use immune status, symptoms and tissue findings to distinguish HIV and transplant opportunistic disease, select treatment and prescribe targeted prevention.

A CD4 count estimates vulnerability; it does not name the infection. A person with a count of 40 can have pneumococcal pneumonia, tuberculosis, several opportunistic infections together or a noninfectious illness. Start with the affected organ, then use immune status, exposure and preventive therapy to decide what evidence you need.

Use immune risk without turning it into a diagnosis

Loss of CD4 T-cell function weakens coordination of macrophage and other antimicrobial responses. Latent organisms can reactivate, normally controlled environmental organisms can disseminate, and some viruses produce end-organ disease. Yet the depth and duration of immune dysfunction matter alongside the current count. Effective antiretroviral therapy, viral suppression, prior infections and prophylaxis all change risk.

Read across the risk bands, then return to the patient’s syndrome

At any count

Consider bacterial infections and tuberculosis. Thrush and Kaposi sarcoma are not confined to one numerical interval.

Below about 200

PCP becomes especially important. Esophageal candidiasis is a marker of advanced disease. Exposure can add endemic fungal risk.

Below about 100

Toxoplasma reactivation in a seropositive person and cryptococcosis enter the foreground. Chronic protozoal diarrhea becomes more severe.

Below about 50

CMV retinitis and disseminated MAC become major considerations, particularly without effective ART.

These bands overlap. They describe epidemiology and selected prevention thresholds, not permission to exclude an organism above a boundary. [1] [2] [4] [5]

Ask whether the immune defect is actually HIV-related. Neutropenia increases concern for invasive molds; corticosteroids can permit Strongyloides hyperinfection; transplantation combines drug effects, donor and recipient exposures, and surgical complications. A single HIV CD4 chart cannot substitute for those distinct host assessments.

In adults, a CD4 count below 200 cells per microliter or an AIDS-defining condition can establish stage 3 HIV disease. This classification does not imply that all immune function is absent. Herpes zoster can occur across CD4 counts, with more extensive disease and complications at lower counts. [17] [18]

Separate a lung syndrome from disseminated infection

PCP commonly produces progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, fever and diffuse ground-glass lung opacities over days to weeks in people with advanced HIV. Hypoxemia may be substantial despite limited auscultatory findings. Increased lactate dehydrogenase is nonspecific. Pneumocystis jirovecii is a fungus, but its treatment differs from routine azole therapy. Organism demonstration or molecular testing on an induced sputum or bronchoalveolar specimen supports diagnosis; a PCR result still needs interpretation for colonization versus disease. Routine fungal culture is not the diagnostic method. [1]

TMP-SMX treats PCP, generally for 21 days in HIV. Adjunctive corticosteroids are indicated for moderate or severe oxygenation impairment, defined by room-air arterial PaO2 below 70 mm Hg or an alveolar-arterial gradient of at least 35 mm Hg. Give them early, ideally within 72 hours of treatment. A pulse oximetry number alone is not the guideline’s exact criterion. Begin ART within two weeks of PCP diagnosis when feasible. [1]

Tuberculosis can occur at any CD4 count. With advanced immunosuppression, upper-lobe cavitation may disappear from the presentation; diffuse infiltrates, adenopathy, dissemination or even a normal chest radiograph can occur. Obtain site-appropriate molecular testing and cultures when active TB is suspected. A negative IGRA or skin test cannot exclude active disease in an anergic host. Rifamycin interactions with ART influence treatment selection. [10]

Disseminated MAC often causes persistent fever, weight loss, anemia, diarrhea, lymphadenopathy and increased alkaline phosphatase in advanced HIV. Mycobacterial blood cultures can establish disseminated disease. Treatment uses at least a macrolide plus ethambutol, with additional drugs for selected severe or high-risk disease. Macrolide monotherapy risks resistance. Treatment usually continues at least 12 months and until sustained immune recovery criteria are met. [4]

Exposure matters for endemic fungi. Histoplasma can disseminate to marrow and reticuloendothelial organs, producing fever, cytopenias and hepatosplenomegaly; urine or serum antigen is useful in advanced HIV. Small intracellular yeast support the diagnosis, but antigen cross-reactions require interpretation. Severe disease generally receives liposomal amphotericin B followed by itraconazole. Coccidioides exposure in endemic arid regions can lead to pulmonary or disseminated disease, with tissue spherules rather than budding yeast. Neither diagnosis follows automatically from a count near 150. [11] [12]

Locate the neurologic lesion before naming it

Three different anatomic problems

Meninges and CSF suggest cryptococcosis when headache evolves over weeks with raised pressure. Focal enhancing brain lesions raise toxoplasmosis, lymphoma and other infections. White matter dysfunction without much mass effect raises progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Imaging is a comparison tool, not a pathology result.

Toxoplasma encephalitis often represents reactivation in a person with positive Toxoplasma IgG and a CD4 count below 100. Multiple enhancing lesions, frequently involving the basal ganglia, support an empiric diagnosis in a compatible setting. A single lesion does not prove lymphoma, and multiple lesions do not prove toxoplasmosis. Preferred treatments include pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine plus leucovorin or treatment-dose TMP-SMX. Leucovorin limits pyrimethamine-associated marrow toxicity. TMP-SMX is not merely a preventive drug. [2]

Follow the neurologic examination and imaging response. Failure to improve within about 10 to 14 days, deterioration or an atypical presentation warrants reconsideration and often biopsy. CSF EBV DNA can raise suspicion for primary CNS lymphoma but does not independently establish histology. PML due to JC virus commonly causes progressively focal deficits with nonenhancing white matter lesions and little mass effect; inflammatory changes can appear during immune reconstitution. Immune restoration is central to its treatment. [2] [16]

For suspected cryptococcal meningitis, obtain CSF cryptococcal antigen and measure opening pressure when lumbar puncture is safe. India ink is less sensitive. A minimally inflammatory CSF does not exclude infection in profound immunosuppression. Positive CSF antigen requires CNS treatment even if headache is absent. Common resource-rich induction uses liposomal amphotericin B and flucytosine, followed by fluconazole consolidation and maintenance. Therapeutic punctures may be needed for symptomatic raised pressure. [3]

ART timing is particularly consequential here. For cryptococcal meningitis, it is generally deferred four to six weeks after antifungals begin. That delay should not be copied onto PCP or disseminated MAC, where earlier immune restoration is recommended. The relevant question is how the organism and its location interact with the recovering immune response.

Let the involved tissue distinguish look-alikes

New floaters, blind spots or reduced vision in advanced HIV need urgent dilated retinal examination. CMV retinitis can cause necrotizing white retinal lesions with hemorrhage and can threaten vision with little pain. Oral valganciclovir or intravenous ganciclovir supplies systemic treatment. Immediately sight-threatening lesions may also require intravitreal ganciclovir or foscarnet. Local ocular treatment alone does not protect the other eye or treat extraocular CMV. Ganciclovir can suppress marrow; foscarnet can injure kidneys and disturb electrolytes. It is an important alternative for selected ganciclovir-resistant infection, guided by susceptibility and specialist assessment. [5]

Positive blood CMV PCR does not by itself establish retinitis, esophagitis or colitis. End-organ disease needs the corresponding examination or tissue evidence. CMV esophageal ulcers can be large and linear, while HSV often produces smaller ulcers; overlap makes biopsy important when the diagnosis is uncertain. For CMV end-organ disease, ART is generally started within one to two weeks after anti-CMV treatment, with individualized attention to neurologic disease and inflammation. [5]

Oropharyngeal candidiasis often forms white plaques that can be scraped away. Oral hairy leukoplakia is EBV-associated and typically has adherent corrugated plaques on the lateral tongue. Candida can produce yeast and filamentous forms, but this is not the environmental thermal dimorphism of Histoplasma. Odynophagia or dysphagia raises esophageal candidiasis, which needs systemic treatment such as fluconazole rather than topical mouth therapy alone. Esophageal candidiasis is AIDS-defining; oral thrush alone is not. [6]

Chronic watery diarrhea requires organism-specific testing
OrganismUseful specimen distinctionTreatment direction
CryptosporidiumSmall round acid-fast oocysts, antigen or molecular testingART, rehydration and nutrition; selected adjunctive nitazoxanide
CystoisosporaLarger elongated acid-fast oocystsTMP-SMX and immune restoration
MicrosporidiaTiny spores using dedicated stains or molecular methodsART and species-directed therapy

Cryptosporidium can also involve the biliary tract and cause cholangitis. TMP-SMX is not its standard treatment. Nitazoxanide may be considered with ART, but sustained immune restoration is the essential intervention in advanced HIV. Albendazole treats some microsporidial species, especially Encephalitozoon, but is unreliable for Enterocytozoon bieneusi. Do not prescribe a single drug merely because the stool report says parasite. [7] [8] [9]

Violaceous lesions with spindle cells and irregular vascular spaces suggest HHV-8-associated Kaposi sarcoma. Tissue establishes the diagnosis. Visceral disease can occur without obvious skin lesions, and management combines effective ART with oncology-directed therapy when indicated. A low count increases concern but is not a required diagnostic criterion. [13]

Prescribe prevention for the actual ART situation

Current NIH PCP guidance recommends primary prophylaxis for people not taking ART or starting ART with CD4 counts below 200. For people already on ART, the restart criteria distinguish a count below 100 regardless of viral load from a count of 100 to 200 with detectable HIV RNA. TMP-SMX is preferred. After immune recovery, prophylaxis can generally stop at a count of at least 200 sustained for three months; selected virologically suppressed patients between 100 and 200 may qualify after three to six months. A single improved count is insufficient. [1]

Toxoplasma primary prophylaxis is indicated for IgG-positive people with a count below 100. TMP-SMX can protect against both toxoplasmosis and PCP when used in the appropriate regimen. An asymptomatic IgG-positive patient does not need routine brain MRI solely for the antibody result. An IgG-negative patient needs exposure prevention and reassessment rather than treatment for presumed latent encephalitis. When TMP-SMX cannot be used, a combined dapsone, pyrimethamine and leucovorin regimen is one alternative that can cover PCP and toxoplasmosis; assess G6PD status before dapsone. Dapsone alone does not provide equivalent toxoplasma protection. [2]

MAC primary prophylaxis is not automatic below 50. It is indicated when effective ART is not being started promptly, viremia persists on ART or no suppressive regimen is available. Exclude active disseminated MAC before giving a macrolide alone. A symptomatic patient may need combination treatment rather than prophylaxis. [4]

In HIV, a tuberculin skin reaction of at least 5 mm is positive. Before latent TB treatment, assess symptoms, imaging and microbiology as indicated to exclude active disease. Short rifamycin-based preventive regimens are useful when compatible with ART; isoniazid remains an alternative in appropriate circumstances. A normal radiograph alone cannot erase a concerning active TB syndrome. [10]

After transplantation, interpret time through immunosuppression

In the first month, surgical sites, catheters, donor-derived infections, HSV reactivation and hospital exposures dominate much of the differential. During roughly months one through six, CMV, PCP and other opportunistic infections become more prominent when not prevented. Later, community infections predominate in stable recipients with lower net immunosuppression. Rejection treatment or cessation of prophylaxis can shift these patterns. CMV disease at three months is plausible; that date alone does not diagnose it. [14]

Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder may present with fever, lymphadenopathy, organ dysfunction or extranodal masses. Many cases are EBV-associated, but timing and a positive viral load do not establish the tissue diagnosis. Histology, disease extent and graft considerations guide treatment. Coordinated reduction of immunosuppression is often part of care; CD20-directed rituximab and other therapies may also be required. Avoid interpreting every posttransplant fever as either infection alone or a condition cured by simply stopping all transplant drugs. [15]

Practice syndrome-based decisions

Case 1

An adult with untreated HIV and CD4 count 74 has three weeks of progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough and diffuse ground-glass opacities. Which test best supports suspected PCP?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Routine fungal culture of sputum alone (Why this does not fit)

    Pneumocystis is not diagnosed through routine fungal culture.

  2. B. Serum LDH alone (Why this does not fit)

    LDH can increase but is nonspecific and cannot establish the organism.

  3. C. Toxoplasma IgG alone (Why this does not fit)

    That serology assesses exposure relevant to toxoplasmosis, not the cause of this diffuse pneumonia.

  4. D. Pneumocystis testing on induced sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage (Best answer)

    A respiratory specimen can demonstrate organisms or DNA in a compatible pulmonary syndrome.

Takeaway: Use organism-directed respiratory testing rather than a nonspecific marker.

Case sources: [1]

Case 2

A person with HIV has confirmed PCP, room-air PaO2 of 64 mm Hg and no contraindication to standard therapy. Which treatment pair is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. TMP-SMX without considering oxygenation (Why this does not fit)

    This misses the demonstrated indication for adjunctive steroids.

  2. B. Azithromycin alone (Why this does not fit)

    A macrolide used for MAC prevention does not treat PCP adequately.

  3. C. TMP-SMX plus adjunctive corticosteroids (Best answer)

    TMP-SMX treats the organism, and PaO2 below 70 meets the oxygenation criterion for steroids.

  4. D. Fluconazole plus corticosteroids (Why this does not fit)

    Fluconazole does not supply standard effective PCP therapy.

Takeaway: PCP steroid decisions depend on measured oxygenation.

Case sources: [1]

Case 3

A patient with confirmed PCP has room-air PaO2 of 73 mm Hg but an alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient of 39 mm Hg. Should adjunctive corticosteroids be added?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Only after three weeks of TMP-SMX fail (Why this does not fit)

    Adjunctive steroids are most useful early in qualifying hypoxemic disease.

  2. B. Yes, the gradient alone meets the criterion (Best answer)

    An A-a gradient of at least 35 qualifies even when PaO2 is not below 70.

  3. C. No, because both oxygen criteria must be abnormal (Why this does not fit)

    The guidance uses either threshold, not a requirement to meet both.

  4. D. Only if a repeat CT shows a pleural effusion (Why this does not fit)

    Pleural effusion is not the criterion for PCP corticosteroids.

Takeaway: The two PCP oxygen thresholds are alternatives.

Case sources: [1]

Case 4

An ART-naive patient with PCP is improving after several days of treatment and can take oral medicines. What is the usual ART plan?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. If feasible, start ART within two weeks of diagnosis (Best answer)

    Early ART supports immune recovery; PCP does not usually require the prolonged delay used in cryptococcal meningitis.

  2. B. Delay ART for a full year (Why this does not fit)

    That leaves the underlying immune defect untreated far longer than recommended.

  3. C. Wait to initiate ART until the CD4 count has recovered without it (Why this does not fit)

    Antimicrobial treatment alone will not reliably restore HIV-related immune function.

  4. D. Avoid ART because PCP always causes fatal IRIS (Why this does not fit)

    PCP-associated IRIS is not a universal or absolute contraindication to early ART.

Takeaway: Do not transfer cryptococcal ART timing to PCP.

Case sources: [1]

Case 5

A newly diagnosed adult with HIV, CD4 count 180 and no pulmonary symptoms is starting ART today. Which preventive intervention is indicated?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Treatment-dose TMP-SMX for presumed active PCP (Why this does not fit)

    The stem has no pulmonary disease to justify treatment rather than prevention.

  2. B. Azithromycin solely because the count is below 200 (Why this does not fit)

    MAC prevention uses a different risk threshold and ART context.

  3. C. No prophylaxis because ART begins today (Why this does not fit)

    Immediate ART does not remove the initial PCP prophylaxis indication at this count.

  4. D. TMP-SMX primary PCP prophylaxis (Best answer)

    Current NIH guidance recommends prophylaxis below 200 for patients not on ART or starting ART.

Takeaway: Separate initial PCP prophylaxis from decisions after sustained suppression.

Case sources: [1]

Case 6

A patient already on ART has HIV RNA suppressed for eight months and CD4 counts between 145 and 170. There is no previous PCP. What is the most accurate discussion of ongoing primary prophylaxis?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Prophylaxis must stop after one suppressed viral load (Why this does not fit)

    A single result does not establish the sustained suppression specified.

  2. B. Azithromycin must replace TMP-SMX for continued PCP prophylaxis (Why this does not fit)

    A macrolide is not an equivalent PCP preventive drug.

  3. C. Consider stopping after individual review of sustained suppression (Best answer)

    NIH allows consideration between 100 and 200 after three to six months of suppression.

  4. D. A count below 200 requires prophylaxis forever despite suppression (Why this does not fit)

    That ignores the guideline’s selected stopping pathway.

Takeaway: ART response changes prevention decisions within the 100 to 200 range.

Case sources: [1]

Case 7

An untreated patient with HIV, CD4 count 62 and positive Toxoplasma IgG develops a seizure. MRI shows several enhancing lesions involving the basal ganglia. Which regimen is a preferred treatment option?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Fluconazole alone (Why this does not fit)

    An azole used for some fungi does not provide standard toxoplasma encephalitis treatment.

  2. B. Treatment-dose TMP-SMX (Best answer)

    Current NIH guidance includes TMP-SMX as a preferred acute toxoplasmosis regimen.

  3. C. TMP-SMX only at prophylactic dosing (Why this does not fit)

    Established encephalitis needs treatment dosing rather than the preventive schedule.

  4. D. Pyrimethamine without leucovorin or another antimicrobial (Why this does not fit)

    Monotherapy is inadequate, and omission of leucovorin increases marrow toxicity risk.

Takeaway: TMP-SMX is an active treatment option, not only prophylaxis.

Case sources: [2]

Case 8

A patient with toxoplasma encephalitis starts pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine. Why is leucovorin included?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. To reduce pyrimethamine-related marrow toxicity (Best answer)

    Folinic acid rescue protects host folate-dependent cellular processes during therapy.

  2. B. To intensify parasite folate deprivation (Why this does not fit)

    Leucovorin provides host folate rescue rather than an additional parasite-directed antifolate effect.

  3. C. To treat perilesional cerebral edema directly (Why this does not fit)

    Leucovorin is not an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly relieve brain edema.

  4. D. To replace sulfadiazine if the lesions are multiple (Why this does not fit)

    Leucovorin does not substitute for the antimicrobial partner.

Takeaway: Know which component treats infection and which protects the host.

Case sources: [2]

Case 9

A seropositive adult with advanced HIV receives appropriate empiric toxoplasmosis treatment for enhancing brain lesions. After 14 days, weakness worsens and imaging shows enlargement. What is the best next direction?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Continue unchanged for months before reassessment (Why this does not fit)

    The expected early response window has passed and the patient is deteriorating.

  2. B. Diagnose lymphoma solely because one lesion is largest (Why this does not fit)

    Lesion number and size distribution cannot establish histology.

  3. C. Stop all investigation because positive IgG proves active toxoplasmosis (Why this does not fit)

    IgG documents prior exposure and supports risk, but does not prove the cause of every lesion.

  4. D. Reassess the diagnosis and pursue tissue diagnosis when appropriate (Best answer)

    Failure to respond warrants evaluation for lymphoma, another infection or another explanation rather than assuming toxoplasmosis.

Takeaway: An empiric diagnosis requires a planned response check.

Case sources: [2]

Case 10

An adult with HIV develops progressive unilateral weakness and cognitive slowing over several weeks. MRI shows asymmetric nonenhancing white matter lesions with little mass effect. CSF JC virus PCR is positive. Which diagnosis fits best?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Cryptococcal meningitis as the only explanation (Why this does not fit)

    A meningeal high-pressure syndrome is different from the described demyelinating imaging pattern.

  2. B. Primary CNS lymphoma (Why this does not fit)

    Lymphoma can cause focal deficits but usually produces an enhancing mass; the stated white matter pattern and JC virus PCR favor PML.

  3. C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Best answer)

    The white matter pattern, progressive focal dysfunction and JC virus result fit PML.

  4. D. Typical toxoplasma abscesses (Why this does not fit)

    These usually enhance and have surrounding edema; the JC virus result points elsewhere.

Takeaway: Anatomic localization helps separate opportunistic neurologic syndromes.

Case sources: [16]

Case 11

A patient with CD4 count 28 has subacute headache. CSF opening pressure is high and cryptococcal antigen is positive, but only three leukocytes per microliter are present. What is the interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Viral meningitis established solely by the low leukocyte count (Why this does not fit)

    The cell count is nonspecific, whereas the positive cryptococcal antigen supplies organism-directed evidence.

  2. B. Cryptococcal meningitis can occur with little CSF inflammation (Best answer)

    Profound immune dysfunction can blunt pleocytosis despite CNS infection.

  3. C. A near-normal cell count excludes any meningitis (Why this does not fit)

    That rule fails in severely immunosuppressed patients.

  4. D. Isolated serum antigenemia without CNS involvement (Why this does not fit)

    The antigen is present in CSF with a compatible headache and pressure syndrome, so this is not an isolated serum finding.

Takeaway: A weak host inflammatory response does not imply a low-risk infection.

Case sources: [3]

Case 12

An ART-naive patient begins liposomal amphotericin B and flucytosine for cryptococcal meningitis. Which combined plan is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Manage raised CSF pressure and generally defer ART for four to six weeks (Best answer)

    Both pressure injury and premature CNS immune inflammation can affect outcome.

  2. B. Use routine steroids instead of therapeutic lumbar punctures (Why this does not fit)

    Steroids do not replace indicated CSF drainage and are not routine cryptococcal adjuncts.

  3. C. Begin ART immediately and omit antifungal consolidation (Why this does not fit)

    Immediate ART is generally deferred in this CNS infection, and later antifungal phases remain necessary.

  4. D. Stop antifungals when India ink first becomes negative (Why this does not fit)

    India ink is not a reliable standalone measure for ending treatment.

Takeaway: Cryptococcal care includes pressure management and deliberate ART timing.

Case sources: [3]

Case 13

An adult with untreated HIV and CD4 count 19 has fever, weight loss, anemia and increased alkaline phosphatase. Mycobacterial blood culture grows MAC. Which regimen concept is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Azithromycin alone at prophylactic dosing (Why this does not fit)

    Monotherapy is inappropriate for established disseminated infection and promotes resistance.

  2. B. Isoniazid alone (Why this does not fit)

    A latent TB regimen does not treat disseminated MAC.

  3. C. Fluconazole alone (Why this does not fit)

    MAC is a mycobacterium rather than an azole-susceptible fungus.

  4. D. A macrolide plus ethambutol, with additional therapy when indicated (Best answer)

    Disseminated MAC requires multidrug treatment to improve efficacy and limit resistance.

Takeaway: Symptoms and positive blood culture turn a prevention question into a treatment question.

Case sources: [4]

Case 14

An asymptomatic adult with HIV has CD4 count 32 and is starting a fully suppressive ART regimen immediately. Active MAC disease is not suspected. What is the usual primary MAC prophylaxis plan?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Give ethambutol alone indefinitely (Why this does not fit)

    Ethambutol monotherapy is not standard primary prophylaxis.

  2. B. Treat disseminated MAC without diagnostic evidence (Why this does not fit)

    The count alone does not establish active infection.

  3. C. No routine MAC prophylaxis for this count alone (Best answer)

    Immediate effective ART removes the usual need for primary MAC prophylaxis.

  4. D. Azithromycin is mandatory in every person below 50 (Why this does not fit)

    That omits the central role of prompt effective ART.

Takeaway: MAC primary prevention depends on access to effective ART.

Case sources: [4]

Case 15

A patient with CD4 count 24 cannot currently take an effective suppressive ART regimen. He has new fever and weight loss. Before starting azithromycin for MAC prophylaxis, what matters most?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Use ethambutol alone while waiting to evaluate symptoms (Why this does not fit)

    That would still be inadequate monotherapy for possible active disseminated MAC; evaluation should determine the needed combination regimen.

  2. B. Evaluate for active disseminated MAC (Best answer)

    Symptoms may represent established disease, for which macrolide monotherapy would be inadequate.

  3. C. Assume that fever is a harmless effect of the CD4 count (Why this does not fit)

    The count is a risk marker, not an explanation for constitutional symptoms.

  4. D. Give prophylaxis without considering blood cultures (Why this does not fit)

    Investigation for active disease may require cultures before a preventive monotherapy regimen.

Takeaway: Exclude active disease before prescribing preventive monotherapy.

Case sources: [4]

Case 16

A patient with CD4 count 41 reports new floaters and a missing patch of vision. What is the most urgent evaluation?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. Dilated ophthalmologic examination (Best answer)

    CMV retinitis can threaten vision, and retinal examination directly evaluates the involved tissue.

  2. B. Wait for routine follow-up after a blood CMV PCR (Why this does not fit)

    Blood PCR neither replaces retinal examination nor justifies delay in a visual emergency.

  3. C. Treat oral thrush first and reassess in a month (Why this does not fit)

    A mucosal finding cannot explain away new retinal symptoms.

  4. D. Order Toxoplasma IgG as the sole test (Why this does not fit)

    Serology alone cannot diagnose the cause of new visual loss.

Takeaway: New visual symptoms in advanced HIV warrant urgent retinal assessment.

Case sources: [5]

Case 17

Ophthalmology confirms CMV retinitis with a lesion immediately threatening the fovea. Which treatment strategy best protects vision and addresses systemic risk?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Intravitreal therapy alone for all disease (Why this does not fit)

    Local treatment does not protect the other eye or control extraocular CMV.

  2. B. Oral acyclovir at standard HSV dosing (Why this does not fit)

    Acyclovir is not an effective substitute for recommended CMV retinitis therapy.

  3. C. Intravitreal therapy with ART as the only systemic intervention (Why this does not fit)

    ART is essential but does not replace systemic anti-CMV treatment for active sight-threatening retinitis.

  4. D. Systemic anti-CMV therapy plus indicated intravitreal therapy (Best answer)

    Systemic treatment protects beyond the involved site, while local therapy rapidly treats an immediately sight-threatening lesion.

Takeaway: Sight-threatening retinitis can need local treatment in addition to systemic therapy.

Case sources: [5]

Case 18

A patient with HIV has odynophagia and large esophageal ulcers. Biopsy demonstrates cytomegalic cells with viral inclusions and CMV immunostaining. Which treatment is directed at this finding?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. TMP-SMX alone (Why this does not fit)

    This does not provide standard CMV therapy.

  2. B. No treatment because blood PCR can be positive without disease (Why this does not fit)

    That limitation applies to isolated viremia; this patient has symptoms and tissue-proven disease.

  3. C. Ganciclovir-based systemic therapy (Best answer)

    Tissue evidence establishes CMV esophagitis, for which systemic anti-CMV treatment is appropriate.

  4. D. Topical nystatin alone (Why this does not fit)

    It treats selected oral Candida infections but not invasive CMV esophageal disease.

Takeaway: Tissue evidence distinguishes CMV end-organ disease from isolated viral detection.

Case sources: [5]

Case 19

An adult with HIV has painful swallowing and white oral plaques that scrape away. A clinician suspects esophageal candidiasis. Which approach is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Treat Candida as a thermally dimorphic endemic mold (Why this does not fit)

    Candida yeast and filamentous forms do not make it an environmental thermal dimorph like Histoplasma.

  2. B. Use systemic therapy, such as fluconazole; assess response (Best answer)

    Esophageal involvement needs systemic therapy even when oral thrush is also visible.

  3. C. Topical mouth therapy alone regardless of swallowing symptoms (Why this does not fit)

    Local oral treatment does not adequately treat the esophagus.

  4. D. Diagnose oral hairy leukoplakia from scrapable plaques (Why this does not fit)

    Hairy leukoplakia is typically adherent and corrugated on the lateral tongue.

Takeaway: The involved anatomic site determines whether topical treatment is enough.

Case sources: [6]

Case 20

A patient with advanced HIV has profuse watery diarrhea and small round acid-fast oocysts on stool testing. Which management foundation is most important?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Effective ART with fluid, electrolyte and nutritional support (Best answer)

    Immune restoration and supportive care are central in HIV-associated cryptosporidiosis; adjunctive agents may be considered.

  2. B. TMP-SMX as reliably curative monotherapy (Why this does not fit)

    TMP-SMX treats Cystoisospora but is not standard curative therapy for Cryptosporidium.

  3. C. Avoid ART until all oocysts disappear (Why this does not fit)

    This delays the immune recovery needed to control persistent infection.

  4. D. Treat only with an antimotility drug despite dehydration (Why this does not fit)

    Symptom reduction does not correct volume and electrolyte deficits or the immune defect.

Takeaway: Cryptosporidiosis requires immune restoration and supportive care.

Case sources: [7]

Case 21

An adult with HIV and chronic watery diarrhea has large elongated acid-fast oocysts identified as Cystoisospora belli. Which antimicrobial is preferred?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Ganciclovir (Why this does not fit)

    That targets CMV, not this intestinal coccidian parasite.

  2. B. Fluconazole (Why this does not fit)

    An azole does not supply standard Cystoisospora therapy.

  3. C. Ivermectin (Why this does not fit)

    This is used for selected helminths and does not replace TMP-SMX here.

  4. D. TMP-SMX (Best answer)

    The organism identification supports cystoisosporiasis, for which TMP-SMX is the treatment of choice.

Takeaway: Acid-fast oocyst size and shape help distinguish different treatment pathways.

Case sources: [8]

Case 22

A patient with HIV has diarrhea due to Enterocytozoon bieneusi confirmed by molecular testing. Which statement about management is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. A positive result makes immune restoration unnecessary (Why this does not fit)

    ART remains central to control in advanced HIV.

  2. B. Use pyrimethamine alone as standard treatment (Why this does not fit)

    That is not a standard regimen for this identified microsporidial infection.

  3. C. Prioritize ART and supportive care; albendazole is unreliable for this species (Best answer)

    Microsporidial therapy depends on species, and E. bieneusi differs from susceptible Encephalitozoon infections.

  4. D. All microsporidia respond equally to albendazole (Why this does not fit)

    That generalization ignores important species-specific drug activity.

Takeaway: A microsporidial label is not enough to choose a drug without species context.

Case sources: [9]

Case 23

A patient with HIV has a tuberculin skin reaction measuring 6 mm. He reports cough and night sweats. Which next step is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Exclude active TB if the chest radiograph is normal (Why this does not fit)

    A normal radiograph, particularly with immune suppression, cannot by itself negate a symptomatic TB evaluation.

  2. B. Assess active TB before choosing latent TB therapy (Best answer)

    At least 5 mm is positive in HIV, and symptoms require active disease assessment.

  3. C. Call the test negative because it is below 10 mm (Why this does not fit)

    The HIV-specific threshold is lower.

  4. D. Start isoniazid monotherapy without evaluating symptoms (Why this does not fit)

    Monotherapy is inadequate for active TB and risks resistance.

Takeaway: Interpret the threshold correctly and exclude active disease before prevention.

Case sources: [10]

Case 24

A patient with advanced HIV has fever, weight loss, pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly after exposure in the Ohio River region. Urine Histoplasma antigen is strongly positive and marrow shows small intracellular yeast. Which treatment direction fits severe disseminated disease?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Liposomal amphotericin B followed by itraconazole (Best answer)

    Severe disseminated histoplasmosis warrants induction followed by an oral continuation phase.

  2. B. No treatment because all pulmonary histoplasmosis resolves (Why this does not fit)

    This patient has systemic organ involvement and advanced immune dysfunction, not mild isolated pulmonary illness.

  3. C. Fluconazole as universal first choice for every endemic fungus (Why this does not fit)

    Endemic fungal regimens differ; itraconazole is the usual histoplasmosis oral agent.

  4. D. Itraconazole alone despite severe disseminated disease (Why this does not fit)

    Itraconazole is important for continuation therapy, but the stated severity favors initial amphotericin-based induction.

Takeaway: Host and disease extent distinguish disseminated histoplasmosis from self-limited exposure.

Case sources: [11]

Case 25

A patient with HIV has violaceous skin plaques. Biopsy shows spindle cells and irregular vascular spaces with HHV-8-associated findings. Which diagnosis is supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Oral hairy leukoplakia (Why this does not fit)

    That is an EBV-associated epithelial tongue lesion rather than a vascular skin neoplasm.

  2. B. Bacillary angiomatosis (Why this does not fit)

    This can resemble vascular lesions clinically, but the HHV-8-associated spindle-cell histology supports Kaposi sarcoma.

  3. C. A conventional cutaneous squamous carcinoma (Why this does not fit)

    The specified vascular spaces and spindle-cell HHV-8 findings are not a squamous epithelial malignancy pattern.

  4. D. Kaposi sarcoma (Best answer)

    The vascular spindle-cell lesion and HHV-8 association support KS.

Takeaway: A low CD4 count frames risk, but tissue establishes this tumor diagnosis.

Case sources: [13]

Case 26

Three months after kidney transplantation, a patient develops fever and diarrhea after prophylaxis was interrupted. Colon biopsy demonstrates CMV disease. What does the timing contribute?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. It excludes opportunistic infection because surgery was months ago (Why this does not fit)

    The intermediate posttransplant period is a recognized opportunistic-risk interval.

  2. B. It makes transplant drug exposure irrelevant (Why this does not fit)

    The net immunosuppression and prophylaxis history are essential to interpretation.

  3. C. It supports an opportunistic-risk period, while biopsy establishes the cause (Best answer)

    The timeline informs probability and the tissue result diagnoses CMV involvement.

  4. D. It proves every infection at three months is CMV (Why this does not fit)

    Other infections and noninfectious conditions remain possible at the same time point.

Takeaway: Transplant timing is a context variable, not a diagnostic assay.

Case sources: [5] [14]

Case 27

Eight months after transplantation, a patient develops persistent lymphadenopathy and an extranodal mass. Biopsy shows a CD20-positive posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder. Which care plan is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. Disregard the biopsy diagnosis because PTLD cannot develop within the first year (Why this does not fit)

    PTLD can occur earlier; an arbitrary timing rule cannot override tissue diagnosis.

  2. B. Plan PTLD therapy and careful immunosuppression adjustment with transplant and oncology teams (Best answer)

    Histology and extent guide care, which may include reduction of immunosuppression and rituximab rather than one universal intervention.

  3. C. Discontinue all transplant medications without consulting the treating teams (Why this does not fit)

    That risks graft injury and ignores the need for individualized disease-directed treatment.

  4. D. Use ganciclovir as the sole treatment because many PTLD cases are associated with EBV (Why this does not fit)

    Antiviral therapy alone is not adequate treatment for established PTLD.

Takeaway: PTLD management must address both the lymphoid disease and the graft.

Case sources: [15]

Case 28

A person with HIV has CD4 count 110, positive Toxoplasma IgG and no neurologic symptoms. What does the antibody result mean?

Show answer and explanations for case 28
  1. A. Prior exposure guiding future prophylaxis and diagnosis (Best answer)

    IgG indicates exposure; it does not diagnose asymptomatic active encephalitis or require routine MRI.

  2. B. An immediate indication for empiric six-week encephalitis treatment (Why this does not fit)

    There is no clinical evidence of active CNS disease in this stem.

  3. C. A requirement for screening MRI in every asymptomatic patient (Why this does not fit)

    Routine imaging is not indicated solely because of IgG positivity.

  4. D. Proof that toxoplasmosis can never reactivate (Why this does not fit)

    Persistent latent infection is the reason seropositivity matters when immunity declines.

Takeaway: Interpret serology as exposure evidence rather than a brain lesion diagnosis.

Case sources: [2]

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