⌘ KStart free
0%
Skip to lesson

Reproductive

Cervical Cancer Screening, HPV and Dysplasia

Separate routine cervical screening from abnormal-result management, connect HPV biology to dysplasia, and choose surveillance or treatment using patient risk.

A positive HPV result does not mean cervical cancer, and a normal Pap result does not cancel a high-risk HPV genotype. Start by deciding what today’s visit is for. Routine screening, follow-up of an abnormal result, and evaluation of bleeding are three different clinical tasks.

The virus, the tissue, and the basement membrane

Persistent oncogenic HPV infection drives most cervical cancers. Most infections become undetectable within one or two years, so one positive test is not a prediction of inevitable progression. Persistence matters because infected epithelial cells remain exposed to viral proteins that disrupt growth control. Smoking and impaired immunity increase concern for persistence and progression. Do not assign a fixed countdown from infection to invasion to an individual patient. [1]

HPV reaches basal epithelial cells through small epithelial disruptions. The transformation zone is the region where columnar epithelium has been replaced by squamous metaplasia, between the original and current squamocolumnar junctions. This is the key sampling and colposcopic region. High-risk E6 promotes p53 degradation, weakening DNA-damage responses. E7 disrupts retinoblastoma protein control of E2F, permitting cell-cycle progression. HPV 16 and 18 are particularly important oncogenic types; HPV 6 and 11 primarily cause anogenital warts. [1] [2]

A koilocyte has perinuclear clearing and an enlarged irregular nucleus. It supports HPV cytopathic change; it does not establish invasion, identify the HPV genotype, or replace risk-based testing. Cytology examines exfoliated cells. Histology examines tissue architecture, including how far abnormal cells extend and whether the basement membrane remains intact. [13]

Read the tissue from the surface toward the supporting stroma

CIN 1

Abnormal immature cells mainly occupy the lower third. Upper layers retain maturation. The basement membrane remains intact.

CIN 2

Abnormal cells extend into roughly the lower two thirds. Maturation is reduced. The basement membrane remains intact.

CIN 3

Severe dysplasia involves more than two thirds, sometimes the full epithelial thickness. The basement membrane remains intact.

Invasive carcinoma

Tumor crosses the basement membrane into stroma. Thickness alone does not establish invasion.

This spatial comparison is schematic. Cytologic LSIL often corresponds to CIN 1; cytologic HSIL often corresponds to CIN 2 or CIN 3. The categories are related, not interchangeable diagnoses. [13]

Choose a screening framework before choosing an interval

Average-risk screening applies to asymptomatic people with a cervix without a history requiring surveillance. The USPSTF final recommendation available at this source check remains the 2018 statement. It recommends cytology every three years at ages 21 to 29. At ages 30 to 65, cytology every three years, primary high-risk HPV testing every five years, or cotesting every five years are accepted. The December 2024 USPSTF update is a draft, not a final replacement. [3] [4]

ACS uses a different starting age. Its 2025 update retains primary HPV screening beginning at 25, usually every five years for clinician-collected cervical specimens. FDA-approved self-collected vaginal HPV testing is an acceptable average-risk option; a negative self-collected test generally has a three-year interval. Clinician collection remains preferred. Positive self-collected results may require a return visit for cervical triage or colposcopy. Cytology cannot be performed on a vaginal self-collection as though it were a clinician-collected cervical specimen. [5]

These recommendations can coexist. In a case asking specifically for USPSTF screening at 23, choose cytology. In a case asking for ACS screening at 26, primary HPV testing is appropriate. Do not write a universal rule that primary HPV screening is forbidden before 30. Vaccination, sexual debut, number of partners, and contraceptive use do not independently shorten routine intervals.

Stopping requires a documented history, not just a birthday. Under the USPSTF framework, adequate prior negative screening generally means three negative cytology tests or two negative cotests within ten years, with the latest within five years, and no high-risk reason to continue. The ACS update further specifies exit testing around ages 60 and 65 using its chosen modality. Unknown records do not meet exit criteria. After total hysterectomy for benign disease with no CIN 2+ or cervical cancer history, routine cervical screening is unnecessary. A retained cervix after supracervical hysterectomy still needs screening. [3] [5]

HIV requires its own schedule. Current NIH guidance begins cervical screening at 21, not within a year of adolescent sexual debut. Ages 21 to 29 use cytology, initially annually; three consecutive normal annual tests permit a three-year interval. Screening continues beyond 65, guided by health and life expectancy. Do not apply average-risk ACS self-collection or exit rules to this population. Other immunosuppression and prenatal diethylstilbestrol exposure also require condition-specific plans. [6]

Manage the result together with the history

ASCCP management estimates the risk of CIN 3+ from current results and prior HPV-based tests, colposcopy, and treatment. For most patients 25 or older, an immediate CIN 3+ risk of at least 4% reaches the colposcopy threshold. A recent negative HPV test or cotest can lower the risk of a new low-grade abnormality enough for one-year surveillance; a prior negative Pap alone does not provide the same reduction. Use the current ASCCP risk tables or application for combinations beyond these examples. [7]

Common result comparisons

  • ASC-US with negative HPV and unknown history usually leads to three-year return.
  • HPV-positive ASC-US or LSIL with unknown history generally leads to colposcopy.
  • A first non-16/18 high-risk HPV-positive result with NILM cytology usually leads to repeat HPV-based testing in one year under the standard pooled-genotype pathway.
  • HPV 16 or 18 with NILM warrants colposcopy. Persistent HPV-positive NILM at consecutive annual visits also raises risk enough for colposcopy.
  • ASC-H requires colposcopy regardless of HPV status. A negative HPV result does not erase concerning cytology.

NILM means negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy on cytology. If extended genotyping or dual-stain triage is reported, apply the corresponding Enduring Guidelines pathway rather than forcing the result into a pooled HPV example. Identify the exact assay and triage result before applying a risk estimate. [12]

Patients younger than 25 have a more conservative low-grade pathway. LSIL, HPV-positive ASC-US, or ASC-US without HPV testing leads to repeat cytology at one and two years. High-grade cytology at any point, or low-grade persistence at two years, leads to colposcopy. If reflex HPV for ASC-US is negative, repeat cytology in three years. The younger age group therefore needs its own pathway rather than automatic referral for every positive HPV result. [7]

AGC is not another version of ASC-US. Nonpregnant patients generally need colposcopy and endocervical sampling regardless of HPV. Add endometrial sampling at 35 or older, or earlier with abnormal bleeding, chronic anovulation, obesity, or another endometrial risk. AGC favoring neoplasia or AIS cytology may require diagnostic excision even after an initial evaluation does not find invasion. [7]

Decide what needs tissue and what needs treatment

Colposcopy magnifies the cervix after acetic acid application. Acetowhite change identifies areas to examine and biopsy, but is not specific enough to diagnose cancer by itself. CIN 1 is usually observed. In contrast, CIN 3 is a direct cancer precursor and requires treatment outside pregnancy. Excision, often LEEP, both treats the lesion and supplies tissue for assessing invasion and margins. Hysterectomy is not the primary treatment solely for squamous CIN 3. [7]

CIN 2 is the important exception to “treat every high-grade lesion.” Observation can be acceptable when future pregnancy concerns outweigh cancer concerns, the squamocolumnar junction is fully visible, and endocervical sampling does not show CIN 2+ or ungraded CIN. At 25 or older, observation uses colposcopy and HPV-based testing every six months for up to two years. Persistent CIN 2 for two years requires treatment. In patients younger than 25, observation of CIN 2 is preferred, but CIN 3 still requires treatment. [7] [8]

A biopsy is not always required before excision. In nonpregnant patients at least 25, expedited treatment is preferred at an immediate CIN 3+ risk of 60% or more, such as HPV-16-positive HSIL, and acceptable at 25% to below 60%. Discuss the possibility of overtreatment and future pregnancy effects; colposcopy with biopsy remains acceptable. Expedited treatment is not used during pregnancy or below age 25. [9]

Pregnancy changes the procedures, not the need to evaluate possible cancer. Colposcopy and indicated cervical biopsy can be performed. Endocervical curettage and endometrial biopsy are unacceptable during pregnancy. CIN 2 or CIN 3 generally receives surveillance rather than treatment while pregnant; excision is reserved for suspected cancer. Postpartum colposcopy occurs no sooner than four weeks after delivery. [10]

After treatment for CIN 2+, HPV-based tests at 6, 18, and 30 months should be negative before extending to three-year surveillance. Continue surveillance for at least 25 years, even beyond 65 or after hysterectomy when otherwise appropriate. A negative margin or one negative follow-up test does not reset the patient to routine five-year screening. [8]

Prevent new infection and investigate symptoms

Gardasil 9 targets HPV 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58. Routine vaccination is at 11 to 12 and may begin at nine. Catch-up is recommended through 26; ages 27 to 45 use shared decision-making. Starting before 15 usually requires two doses six to twelve months apart. Starting at 15 or later, or being immunocompromised, requires three doses. Vaccination prevents new infections; it does not clear an established lesion. Screening continues after vaccination. [1] [11]

Postcoital bleeding, unexplained intermenstrual bleeding, postmenopausal bleeding, persistent watery or bloody discharge, or a friable cervical mass calls for diagnostic evaluation. A screening interval is not permission to wait through symptoms. Examine the cervix and obtain diagnostic tissue when a lesion is suspicious; confirmed invasive disease requires staging and gynecologic oncology care. A recent negative Pap cannot exclude a visible cancer.

At each visit, identify symptoms first, then check whether the cervix is present, whether the patient is in routine screening or surveillance, and which guideline applies. For abnormal results, add age, genotype, cytology, and prior history before choosing an interval or procedure.

Apply the distinctions

Case 1

A 23-year-old has ASC-US on her first cervical cytology. HPV testing was not performed. She is asymptomatic, immunocompetent, and has no prior abnormal results. What is the recommended ASCCP follow-up?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Repeat cytology in one year (Best answer)

    Below 25, ASC-US without HPV testing is followed with cytology at one and two years; HPV triage is not mandatory.

  2. B. Perform immediate colposcopy (Why this does not fit)

    This low-grade result does not meet the younger-than-25 indications for immediate colposcopy.

  3. C. Perform LEEP (Why this does not fit)

    ASC-US does not establish a high-grade lesion and does not justify excision.

  4. D. Return in five years (Why this does not fit)

    Five years is too long for an unresolved abnormal cytology result.

Takeaway: Low-grade abnormalities below 25 use a conservative cytology pathway.

Case sources: [7]

Case 2

A 36-year-old has her first positive pooled high-risk HPV screen. Genotyping is negative for 16 and 18, reflex cytology is NILM, and there is no prior abnormal result or immunosuppression. No extended genotyping or dual stain is available. What is the next step?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. Immediate LEEP (Why this does not fit)

    There is no high-grade cytology or histologic diagnosis to justify excision.

  2. B. Repeat HPV-based testing in one year (Best answer)

    A first non-16/18 HPV-positive NILM result generally remains below the colposcopy threshold.

  3. C. Repeat screening in five years (Why this does not fit)

    HPV positivity requires surveillance sooner than the routine negative-test interval.

  4. D. Treat the current infection with HPV vaccine (Why this does not fit)

    Vaccination does not clear current HPV and does not substitute for surveillance.

Takeaway: Normal cytology does not erase HPV, but genotype and persistence determine the next step.

Case sources: [7]

Case 3

A 41-year-old has HPV 16 detected on primary screening with NILM reflex cytology. She has no symptoms and no history of treatment. Which evaluation is indicated?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Five-year routine screening (Why this does not fit)

    A high-risk genotype is incompatible with routine negative-test follow-up.

  2. B. Repeat cytology alone in three years (Why this does not fit)

    HPV 16 carries enough risk to require colposcopy despite NILM cytology; a three-year cytology-only delay does not evaluate that risk.

  3. C. Colposcopy (Best answer)

    HPV 16 warrants colposcopy even when cytology is NILM.

  4. D. Hysterectomy (Why this does not fit)

    A genotype result alone does not diagnose cancer or justify definitive surgery.

Takeaway: HPV 16 and 18 are exceptions to routine one-year surveillance for HPV-positive NILM.

Case sources: [7]

Case 4

A healthy 19-year-old uses oral contraception and has been sexually active for two years. She has no bleeding or discharge. Under USPSTF guidance, what should she be offered regarding cervical screening?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. Pap and HPV cotesting today (Why this does not fit)

    Routine screening before 21 adds procedures for commonly transient infections.

  2. B. Baseline colposcopy (Why this does not fit)

    Colposcopy is not a baseline screening test for an asymptomatic teenager.

  3. C. Screen only if she stops contraception (Why this does not fit)

    Contraceptive use does not determine screening eligibility.

  4. D. Begin routine cytology at 21 (Best answer)

    Sexual debut does not lower the USPSTF starting age in an average-risk patient.

Takeaway: Separate sexual health care from cervical cancer screening eligibility.

Case sources: [3]

Case 5

A 30-year-old wants future pregnancy. Biopsy after HSIL cytology confirms CIN 3 without invasion. She is not pregnant. Which treatment best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Excisional treatment such as LEEP (Best answer)

    CIN 3 requires treatment; excision supplies tissue and preserves the uterus.

  2. B. Observation because she wants fertility (Why this does not fit)

    Fertility concerns permit selected CIN 2 observation, not untreated CIN 3 outside pregnancy.

  3. C. HPV vaccination as sole treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Vaccination cannot eradicate established CIN 3.

  4. D. Primary radical hysterectomy (Why this does not fit)

    This is excessive solely for preinvasive squamous CIN 3.

Takeaway: Distinguish CIN 3 from selected observable CIN 2.

Case sources: [7]

Case 6

A 49-year-old with persistent postcoital bleeding has biopsy-confirmed HPV-associated cervical squamous carcinoma. Which viral action promotes this tumor?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. E6 activates Rb and permanently arrests the cell cycle (Why this does not fit)

    That would restrain proliferation and reverses the oncogenic direction.

  2. B. E6 impairs p53 and E7 impairs Rb function (Best answer)

    These viral proteins disrupt DNA-damage responses and cell-cycle restraint.

  3. C. E7 repairs BRCA1-mediated DNA breaks (Why this does not fit)

    This is not the mechanism of HPV-associated cervical transformation.

  4. D. HPV causes cancer by increasing ovarian estrogen secretion (Why this does not fit)

    Hormonal stimulation does not explain the viral tumor-suppressor effects in this tumor.

Takeaway: E6 targets p53; E7 disrupts Rb-mediated restraint.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 7

A 32-year-old has HPV-positive LSIL followed by adequate colposcopy showing CIN 1. No high-grade cytology or prior CIN 2+ is present. Which plan is preferred?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Immediate LEEP in every HPV-positive patient (Why this does not fit)

    HPV positivity alone does not justify excising CIN 1.

  2. B. Radical trachelectomy (Why this does not fit)

    This is a selected invasive-cancer procedure, not treatment for CIN 1.

  3. C. Surveillance with HPV-based testing in one year (Best answer)

    Low-grade referral followed by CIN 1 generally receives surveillance rather than immediate treatment.

  4. D. Topical chemotherapy as routine first-line care (Why this does not fit)

    This is not standard management of a first CIN 1 diagnosis.

Takeaway: CIN 1 after a low-grade referral usually warrants observation.

Case sources: [7]

Case 8

A parent of an unvaccinated healthy eight-year-old asks about the routine CDC HPV schedule. Which statement is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Start routinely at eight (Why this does not fit)

    Eight is below the recommended minimum age.

  2. B. Wait for sexual debut (Why this does not fit)

    Waiting may lose the benefit of vaccination before exposure.

  3. C. Wait until cervical screening starts (Why this does not fit)

    Vaccination and screening have different age schedules and purposes.

  4. D. Routine vaccination is at 11 to 12 years and may start at nine (Best answer)

    This distinguishes the routine target from the minimum starting age.

Takeaway: Vaccination should precede exposure and does not wait for screening.

Case sources: [11]

Case 9

A 17-year-old with perinatally acquired HIV is asymptomatic and has no cervical lesions or previous abnormal cytology. She asks when cervical screening begins under current NIH guidance. What is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. At age 21 (Best answer)

    Current NIH guidance begins at 21 because invasive cervical cancer is very rare in younger patients.

  2. B. Within one year of sexual debut regardless of age (Why this does not fit)

    This reproduces the outdated rule in the original lesson.

  3. C. At age 25 with average-risk ACS testing (Why this does not fit)

    The average-risk ACS starting age does not replace the HIV-specific schedule.

  4. D. Never while HIV is virally suppressed (Why this does not fit)

    Viral suppression does not eliminate cervical screening needs.

Takeaway: Use the current HIV-specific guidance rather than an older adolescent exception.

Case sources: [6]

Case 10

A 35-year-old has HPV-positive ASC-US. Her documented screening cotest three years ago was negative, and she has no prior CIN or immunosuppression. What does that prior HPV-based result usually support?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Immediate hysterectomy (Why this does not fit)

    Neither result establishes invasive cancer.

  2. B. One-year HPV-based surveillance (Best answer)

    A recent negative HPV-based screen lowers the risk of a new low-grade abnormality.

  3. C. Five-year return (Why this does not fit)

    The new abnormality still requires follow-up.

  4. D. Ignoring the prior result and always performing colposcopy (Why this does not fit)

    ASCCP explicitly incorporates prior HPV-based results into risk estimation.

Takeaway: A recent negative HPV-based test can change low-grade management.

Case sources: [7]

Case 11

A 39-year-old has ASC-US with negative high-risk HPV and unknown screening history. She has a cervix, no symptoms, and no high-risk history. What interval is generally appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Colposcopy within one month (Why this does not fit)

    HPV-negative ASC-US does not routinely meet that threshold.

  2. B. Repeat in five years (Why this does not fit)

    ASC-US with negative HPV has a three-year return, not the routine five-year HPV-negative interval.

  3. C. Repeat in three years (Best answer)

    This combination carries low enough risk for a three-year return.

  4. D. Cervical excision (Why this does not fit)

    There is no evidence of a lesion requiring treatment.

Takeaway: ASC-US with negative HPV is low risk but has its own return interval.

Case sources: [7]

Case 12

A 44-year-old has ASC-H cytology but negative high-risk HPV testing. She is nonpregnant. What is indicated?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Routine screening in five years (Why this does not fit)

    The negative HPV test cannot cancel ASC-H.

  2. B. HPV vaccination and no evaluation (Why this does not fit)

    Prevention does not evaluate concerning cytology.

  3. C. Repeat HPV testing only in three years (Why this does not fit)

    This delays the diagnostic evaluation required for ASC-H.

  4. D. Colposcopy (Best answer)

    ASC-H warrants colposcopy regardless of HPV because its cancer risk remains concerning.

Takeaway: High-grade concern on cytology can override a negative HPV result.

Case sources: [7]

Case 13

A 38-year-old with intermenstrual bleeding and chronic anovulation has AGC on cytology. She is not pregnant. What evaluation is most complete?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Colposcopy, endocervical sampling, and endometrial sampling (Best answer)

    AGC requires cervical evaluation; age over 35 and bleeding also support endometrial assessment.

  2. B. Reflex HPV testing alone (Why this does not fit)

    HPV triage alone is inadequate for AGC.

  3. C. Repeat Pap in three years (Why this does not fit)

    AGC requires diagnostic assessment now.

  4. D. Treat presumed cervicitis without tissue evaluation (Why this does not fit)

    Infection treatment would not exclude cervical or endometrial neoplasia.

Takeaway: Glandular abnormalities require attention to both cervical and endometrial sources.

Case sources: [7]

Case 14

A nonpregnant 27-year-old has biopsy-confirmed CIN 2. The entire junction and lesion are seen, endocervical sampling is negative, and she can attend follow-up. She prioritizes minimizing future obstetric risk. Which option is acceptable?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. No testing until after her next pregnancy (Why this does not fit)

    Observation requires structured surveillance, not an open-ended pause.

  2. B. Colposcopy and HPV-based testing every six months (Best answer)

    Selected CIN 2 may be observed for up to two years when these criteria and preferences are met.

  3. C. Assume CIN 2 is already invasive (Why this does not fit)

    CIN 2 is intraepithelial disease, not invasion.

  4. D. Use HPV vaccination to treat CIN 2 instead of surveillance (Why this does not fit)

    HPV vaccination prevents future vaccine-type infections but does not clear this established CIN 2 lesion or replace six-month surveillance.

Takeaway: CIN 2 observation requires appropriate visualization, sampling, and reliable follow-up.

Case sources: [7] [8]

Case 15

A 28-year-old has completed two years of six-month surveillance for CIN 2. Repeat biopsy still shows CIN 2, and she is not pregnant. What is recommended?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Continue observation indefinitely (Why this does not fit)

    The accepted surveillance window is not unlimited.

  2. B. Return to routine five-year screening (Why this does not fit)

    Persistent CIN 2 is not a negative screening state.

  3. C. Treatment of the persistent lesion (Best answer)

    Persistence for two years ends the usual CIN 2 observation window.

  4. D. Repeat HPV vaccination as treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Additional vaccination does not clear the lesion.

Takeaway: Persistent CIN 2 at two years warrants treatment.

Case sources: [7] [8]

Case 16

A nonpregnant 34-year-old has HPV-16-positive HSIL cytology. After discussing fertility effects, she asks whether treatment requires a separate biopsy visit. Which statement is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. Excision is never allowed without a prior biopsy (Why this does not fit)

    That absolute rule excludes a guideline-supported option.

  2. B. Immediate hysterectomy is required (Why this does not fit)

    Expedited treatment means cervical excision, not automatic hysterectomy.

  3. C. Repeat HPV testing in five years is sufficient (Why this does not fit)

    HPV-16-positive HSIL carries high immediate precancer risk.

  4. D. Expedited excision is preferred, while colposcopy with biopsy remains acceptable (Best answer)

    This combination reaches the ASCCP threshold where expedited treatment is preferred.

Takeaway: Expedited treatment is a shared decision for defined high-risk results.

Case sources: [9]

Case 17

A 29-year-old at 16 weeks has HSIL cytology. Colposcopy is planned to exclude cancer. Which procedure must be avoided during pregnancy?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Endocervical curettage (Best answer)

    ECC is unacceptable during pregnancy.

  2. B. Careful colposcopic examination (Why this does not fit)

    Colposcopy is appropriate when the risk warrants it.

  3. C. Directed cervical biopsy when clinically indicated (Why this does not fit)

    Clinically indicated cervical biopsies can be performed in pregnancy.

  4. D. Planning postpartum follow-up (Why this does not fit)

    Follow-up remains essential and should be arranged.

Takeaway: Pregnancy permits indicated cervical evaluation but prohibits ECC.

Case sources: [7] [10]

Case 18

A 40-year-old underwent LEEP for CIN 3 six months ago. Margins were negative and today’s HPV test is negative. Which plan matches updated ASCCP surveillance?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Return immediately to five-year screening (Why this does not fit)

    One negative test does not end post-treatment surveillance.

  2. B. Additional HPV-based testing at 18 and 30 months before three-year intervals (Best answer)

    Three negative tests at 6, 18, and 30 months precede the longer interval.

  3. C. Stop screening because margins were negative (Why this does not fit)

    Negative margins do not eliminate persistent or recurrent disease risk.

  4. D. Annual hysterectomy assessment instead of HPV testing (Why this does not fit)

    This is not a surveillance strategy.

Takeaway: Post-treatment testing has an initial phase and at least 25 years of ongoing surveillance.

Case sources: [8]

Case 19

A 56-year-old had a total hysterectomy for fibroids. Records confirm cervical removal and no history of CIN 2+ or cervical cancer. She has no symptoms. What is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Annual vaginal Pap indefinitely (Why this does not fit)

    Routine vaginal testing is not indicated in this low-risk setting.

  2. B. HPV testing every five years because she is under 65 (Why this does not fit)

    The absence of a cervix and the benign history matter before age-based intervals.

  3. C. No routine cervical or vaginal screening (Best answer)

    Benign total hysterectomy without high-grade history removes the indication for routine screening.

  4. D. Colposcopy of the vaginal cuff now (Why this does not fit)

    There is no abnormal test or suspicious lesion requiring colposcopy.

Takeaway: Confirm the operation and pathology before applying a hysterectomy rule.

Case sources: [3]

Case 20

A 51-year-old reports a hysterectomy for fibroids, but the operative note says supracervical hysterectomy. She has no high-grade history. Which counseling is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Stop because the uterine body is absent (Why this does not fit)

    Screening targets the retained cervix, not the uterine body.

  2. B. Use only annual endometrial biopsies (Why this does not fit)

    Endometrial biopsy is not cervical screening.

  3. C. Perform LEEP because the cervix remains (Why this does not fit)

    A retained normal cervix does not itself require excision.

  4. D. Continue age-appropriate cervical screening (Best answer)

    Supracervical hysterectomy leaves the cervix in place.

Takeaway: Total and supracervical hysterectomy have different screening implications.

Case sources: [3]

Case 21

A healthy 67-year-old has an intact cervix and cannot document any cervical screening in the previous 15 years. She has no symptoms. What is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Continue screening; adequate negative history is unverified (Best answer)

    Age alone does not establish eligibility to stop.

  2. B. Stop screening permanently at 65, regardless of prior screening records (Why this does not fit)

    This omits the adequate-prior-screening requirement.

  3. C. Perform hysterectomy to avoid future screening (Why this does not fit)

    Preventive organ removal is not indicated for missing records.

  4. D. Screen only if postcoital bleeding develops (Why this does not fit)

    Screening aims to detect asymptomatic precancer.

Takeaway: An unknown screening history is not an adequate negative history.

Case sources: [3] [5]

Case 22

A 46-year-old at average risk uses an FDA-approved self-collected vaginal HPV test under an ACS-based program. The result is negative. What interval generally applies to this sampling pathway?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Five years for every HPV specimen (Why this does not fit)

    The five-year clinician-collected interval should not be transferred automatically to self-collection.

  2. B. Three years (Best answer)

    The ACS self-collection pathway uses a three-year interval after a negative result.

  3. C. Six months (Why this does not fit)

    A negative average-risk result does not call for this short surveillance interval.

  4. D. No more screening for life (Why this does not fit)

    One negative result does not meet screening exit criteria.

Takeaway: Specimen type matters when assigning an HPV screening interval.

Case sources: [5]

Case 23

A 48-year-old develops six weeks of postcoital bleeding. Her Pap was negative last year, but examination shows a friable cervical lesion. What is the next step?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Wait until the next routine Pap interval (Why this does not fit)

    Screening intervals apply to asymptomatic people, not this new lesion.

  2. B. Repeat HPV vaccination as the first diagnostic test (Why this does not fit)

    Vaccination is preventive and supplies no tissue diagnosis.

  3. C. Biopsy the suspicious cervical lesion (Best answer)

    A visible lesion and symptoms require diagnosis despite recent negative screening.

  4. D. Reassure because a negative Pap excludes cancer (Why this does not fit)

    Cytology can miss disease and cannot overrule a suspicious examination.

Takeaway: Symptoms and visible abnormalities require diagnostic evaluation.

Case sources: [3] [7]

Case 24

A 12-year-old with HIV starts HPV vaccination. Which schedule is indicated?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Two doses because all children under 15 use two (Why this does not fit)

    Immune status is an exception to the routine age-based two-dose rule.

  2. B. No vaccine because HIV makes it a live-vaccine hazard (Why this does not fit)

    HPV vaccine is not a live vaccine and is recommended in HIV.

  3. C. One dose followed by Pap testing (Why this does not fit)

    Screening cannot substitute for completion of vaccination.

  4. D. Three doses (Best answer)

    Immunocompromised patients require the three-dose series despite starting before 15.

Takeaway: Age at initiation and immune status determine the HPV dose schedule.

Case sources: [6] [11]

Case 25

A 33-year-old’s screening cytology is unsatisfactory because of scant cells; HPV from the same vial is negative. She has no symptoms. Which plan follows updated ASCCP guidance?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Repeat age-based screening as soon as convenient and no later than four months (Best answer)

    The inadequate cytology sample requires timely repeat testing; the accompanying negative HPV does not justify a long interval.

  2. B. Return in five years (Why this does not fit)

    That treats an inadequate combined specimen as a valid reassuring screen.

  3. C. Immediate LEEP (Why this does not fit)

    An inadequate specimen does not diagnose high-grade disease.

  4. D. Wait at least one year to regenerate cells (Why this does not fit)

    There is no required one-year waiting period.

Takeaway: Unsatisfactory cytology requires timely repeat sampling.

Case sources: [8]

Search Bone Wizardry

Quick links