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Reproductive

Contraception

Match contraceptive mechanisms, bleeding effects, medical eligibility, and daily demands to patient goals, then handle missed pills and emergency contraception.

The most effective method on a chart may not be the method a patient wants. Start with pregnancy goals, bleeding preferences, daily routines, and medical conditions. Offer reliable options without treating a preference for pills, condoms, or no device as a problem to overcome.

Where the method acts explains what the patient notices

Combined hormonal contraception, or CHC, includes the combined pill, patch, and vaginal ring. Estrogen and progestin suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, reducing gonadotropin stimulation and preventing ovulation. Progestin also thickens cervical mucus. The route does not erase estrogen exposure. A vaginal ring and a transdermal patch retain the major estrogen-related vascular contraindications. Combined methods can reduce menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea and are associated with lower ovarian and endometrial cancer risk. [1] [2]

Compare the main sites of contraceptive action

Ovary and hormonal signaling

Combined methods, the etonogestrel implant, and DMPA strongly suppress ovulation. Drospirenone pills also primarily inhibit ovulation.

Cervical passage

Progestins make cervical mucus harder for sperm to penetrate. This is central to norethindrone and norgestrel pills and the levonorgestrel IUD.

Uterine environment and sperm

Copper impairs sperm function and fertilization. The levonorgestrel IUD also suppresses the endometrium, reducing bleeding.

Physical barrier

Condoms limit sperm exposure and reduce transmission of many sexually transmitted infections. Diaphragms provide pregnancy protection but not comparable STI protection.

These mechanisms overlap. Endometrial thinning explains bleeding changes; it should not be taught as proof that routine contraception works by ending an implanted pregnancy.

Typical use asks how a method performs in daily life, including missed doses and delayed replacement. IUDs and implants have annual pregnancy rates below one per hundred users because little ongoing action is needed after placement. Pills, patches, rings, and injections depend more on continued use as scheduled. Condoms, withdrawal, and fertility-awareness methods depend on actions around intercourse or cycle tracking. Fertility-awareness methods vary in effectiveness and require instruction. Do not turn broad tiers into identical failure rates for all methods within a tier. [3] [4]

An implant or IUD is a useful offer when daily dosing is difficult and reversibility matters. Permanent contraception is appropriate only when the patient wants permanence after informed discussion. If a patient declines sterilization or an intrauterine device, an arm implant may match the request. No clinician should pressure a patient into a more durable method simply because it is more effective. Condoms can be combined with any chosen method for STI protection.

Choose the duration and bleeding pattern deliberately

Nexplanon contains etonogestrel and is placed subdermally in the upper arm. The FDA label updated in January 2026 permits contraceptive use for up to five years, replacing the original three-year statement. Unpredictable spotting or amenorrhea is common. Irregular bleeding does not by itself mean the implant has stopped working, but new concerning symptoms warrant pregnancy, infection, and other evaluation as indicated. [4]

Levonorgestrel IUDs release progestin locally and often make periods lighter over time, although irregular bleeding can occur initially. Device and indication determine duration. For example, Mirena is approved for contraception for eight years and treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding for five years. Do not extend the heavy-bleeding indication to eight years merely because the contraceptive indication lasts that long. Evaluate unexplained heavy bleeding before attributing it to a benign cycle pattern. [5]

Paragard is a hormone-free copper IUD approved for contraception for ten years. It can increase menstrual bleeding and cramping, which may make it a poor fit for a patient already troubled by these symptoms. Wilson disease and copper hypersensitivity are label contraindications. These are product-specific facts, not a rule that all IUDs contain copper or have the same lifespan. An IUD sits in the uterine cavity, with retrieval strings extending through the cervix; an arm implant is a different device in a different location. [6]

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, or DMPA, is usually given every 13 weeks. It suppresses ovulation and may cause irregular bleeding followed by amenorrhea, weight gain, and delayed return of ovulation after stopping. The delay does not equal permanent infertility. It also reduces bone mineral density. Recovery commonly occurs after stopping, but speed and completeness vary and long-term fracture implications remain uncertain. ACOG does not consider bone concerns alone a reason to prohibit DMPA in every adolescent or automatically stop at two years. Discuss the FDA boxed warning and individual alternatives. [7] [8]

Progestin-only pills are not one interchangeable formulation. Norethindrone and norgestrel depend heavily on cervical mucus and are sensitive to dosing delays. Drospirenone has a different missed-pill pathway and more consistent ovulation suppression. Known hyperkalemia is a contraindication to drospirenone-only pills in the CDC renal-disease guidance; review renal disease and potassium-raising medicines rather than assuming every estrogen-free pill has identical safety. [1] [9]

Separate estrogen restrictions from restrictions on all hormones

The CDC U.S. Medical Eligibility Criteria, or MEC, assigns four categories. Category 1 has no restriction. Category 2 means benefits generally outweigh risk. Category 3 means risks usually outweigh benefits. Category 4 means unacceptable health risk. Categories apply to a specific method and condition; they are not a score added across diagnoses. Use the detailed table when conditions coexist. [1]

High-yield CHC distinctions from U.S. MEC 2024
FindingCombined hormonal contraceptionClinical consequence
Migraine with auraCategory 4Offer suitable estrogen-free options.
Age at least 35, fewer than 15 cigarettes dailyCategory 3Usually choose another method.
Age at least 35, at least 15 cigarettes dailyCategory 4Do not use CHC.
BP at least 160 systolic or 100 diastolicCategory 4Assess hypertension and offer another method.
Current breast cancerCategory 4Progestin methods are also category 4; copper IUD is category 1.

Migraine without aura is different from aura, and age over 35 without smoking is different from the age-smoking combination. A normal blood pressure does not cancel the vascular risk of smoking. Prior stroke, ischemic heart disease, decompensated cirrhosis, and certain liver tumors also impose major restrictions on CHC. “Active liver disease” is too vague; compensated cirrhosis with normal liver function does not carry the same category as decompensated disease.

For prior DVT or pulmonary embolism, recurrence risk and anticoagulation status matter. A history of estrogen-associated, pregnancy-associated, idiopathic, or recurrent VTE generally places CHC in category 4 when not receiving anticoagulation. Lower recurrence risk may be category 3. DMPA is category 3 in higher recurrence-risk settings, while an implant, suitable progestin-only pill, or LNG-IUD may be category 2. Do not label all progestin methods completely free of thrombosis considerations. [1]

Obesity does not make all systemic contraception ineffective through presumed dilution into fat. IUDs and implants remain highly effective options. Some patches have product-specific weight or BMI efficacy and safety restrictions. Obesity also contributes to vascular risk, particularly with other risk factors. Check the exact product and MEC context rather than doubling oral contraceptive doses or excluding all hormonal choices.

Make the chosen method usable from the first day

Assess whether pregnancy can reasonably be excluded, recent unprotected intercourse, and need for emergency contraception. A negative urine test immediately after intercourse does not exclude conception from that exposure. IUD placement requires reasonable certainty the patient is not pregnant. Same-day gonorrhea and chlamydia screening may accompany placement when indicated and there are no signs of active infection. Current purulent cervicitis, gonorrhea, or chlamydia means defer placement and treat. An overdue Pap alone is not a reason to withhold contraception. [10]

Measure blood pressure before CHC. A pelvic examination is not required solely to start pills, a patch, or a ring. Explain how soon protection starts and how long backup is needed based on method and cycle timing. If two or more consecutive active combined pills are missed, meaning at least 48 hours since a pill should have been taken, take the most recent missed pill, continue the pack, and use condoms or abstain until seven consecutive active pills have been taken. Misses late in the active-pill sequence may require skipping the hormone-free interval; first-week misses with recent intercourse may require emergency contraception. [2]

For norethindrone or norgestrel, a pill more than three hours late is missed. Take it as soon as possible, continue daily dosing, and use backup for two days. For drospirenone, one late or missed active pill with less than 48 hours elapsed does not require backup; two or more missed active pills require seven days of backup. Review emergency contraception when exposure occurred during a vulnerable interval. Product-specific instructions prevent a timing rule from being applied to the wrong pill. [9]

Ask whether the bleeding pattern and daily routine still fit at follow-up. Explain expected spotting, offer evaluation and treatment when appropriate, and honor a request to stop or remove a method. A contraceptive choice can change. Continuing an unwanted method is not a measure of successful counseling.

Two time-sensitive situations require different clocks

CHC is category 4 before 21 days postpartum because thrombosis risk is high. From 21 through 42 days, breastfeeding and additional VTE risk factors determine the category. After 42 days, breastfeeding alone is category 2 for CHC, not an absolute prohibition; nonbreastfeeding patients without other restrictions are category 1. Progestin-only methods are often useful during lactation. Postpartum IUD placement is an option, with timing-specific expulsion counseling and exclusion of postpartum sepsis. [1] [10]

Lactational amenorrhea works only when all three conditions are met. The patient is under six months postpartum, remains amenorrheic, and is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, with feeding gaps generally no longer than four hours by day or six by night. Nursing-related endocrine suppression can reduce ovulation, but eight feeds per day alone does not establish reliable contraceptive protection. Ovulation can precede the first period. [1]

Emergency contraception addresses intercourse that already occurred. The copper IUD is a highly effective option within five days of the first unprotected intercourse and provides ongoing contraception. When ovulation can be estimated, placement may be later than five days after intercourse provided it is no more than five days after ovulation. Confirm eligibility and do not place it in an established pregnancy. Its main contraceptive action is impairment of sperm and fertilization; do not claim a proven post-implantation treatment effect. [6] [11]

Oral ulipristal acetate 30 mg and levonorgestrel 1.5 mg should be taken as soon as possible within five days. Ulipristal is more effective at days three through five. Levonorgestrel may be less effective with obesity, but weight is not a reason to withhold available emergency contraception. Oral agents primarily delay ovulation and do not terminate an established pregnancy. Mifepristone plus misoprostol is a medication-abortion regimen, not the U.S. ulipristal emergency regimen. [11]

After ulipristal

Usually wait five days before starting or resuming hormonal contraception, then use condoms or abstain for seven days after starting, or until the next menses if sooner.

After levonorgestrel

Start or resume the regular method immediately and use backup for seven days.

Starting a progestin too soon after ulipristal can reduce its ovulation-delaying effect. A same-day provider-dependent method may sometimes be considered after balancing interaction risk against inability to return. Test for pregnancy if there is no withdrawal bleed within three weeks. Emergency pills do not protect later intercourse. A randomized trial supports the 52-mg LNG-IUD for emergency contraception, but this is distinct from the copper-IUD option listed in CDC SPR 2024 and should follow the applicable clinical protocol; do not extrapolate to lower-dose LNG devices. [11] [12]

Match the plan to the patient

Case 1

A 27-year-old has headaches preceded by 20 minutes of zigzag visual lights. She wants highly effective reversible contraception, declines an IUD, and accepts an arm device. BP is 118/74 mm Hg and she does not smoke. Which method best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Etonogestrel implant (Best answer)

    The implant supplies high effectiveness without estrogen and matches her device preference.

  2. B. Combined oral pill (Why this does not fit)

    Migraine with aura makes CHC category 4 despite normal BP and no smoking.

  3. C. Combined vaginal ring (Why this does not fit)

    The ring still contains estrogen and has the same aura restriction.

  4. D. Condoms alone as the only safe option (Why this does not fit)

    Condoms are useful for STI protection, but appropriate progestin contraception is not excluded.

Takeaway: Aura restricts estrogen, not every contraceptive option.

Case sources: [1] [4]

Case 2

A 41-year-old who smokes 18 cigarettes daily asks for the combined contraceptive patch. She has no hypertension. Which advice fits U.S. MEC?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. Use the patch because her BP is normal (Why this does not fit)

    Normal BP does not cancel the age-smoking restriction.

  2. B. Avoid the patch because CHC is category 4 (Best answer)

    Age at least 35 plus at least 15 cigarettes per day creates unacceptable cardiovascular risk.

  3. C. Use a combined ring to avoid the same risk (Why this does not fit)

    Changing delivery route does not remove estrogen exposure.

  4. D. Withhold all contraception until smoking cessation (Why this does not fit)

    Estrogen-free options remain available while she receives cessation support.

Takeaway: Smoking intensity distinguishes category 3 from category 4 after age 35.

Case sources: [1]

Case 3

A 25-year-old presents 40 hours after condom failure. BMI is 36 kg/m². She wants the most effective established emergency method plus ongoing hormone-free contraception, has light periods, and has no infection or IUD contraindication. Which option best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Levonorgestrel emergency pill alone (Why this does not fit)

    It is an option but does not provide ongoing contraception and may be less effective with obesity.

  2. B. Start a routine combined pill pack only (Why this does not fit)

    A routine start does not adequately address the prior exposure.

  3. C. Copper IUD (Best answer)

    It provides highly effective emergency and ongoing hormone-free contraception without a weight-related reduction in efficacy.

  4. D. No treatment because more than 24 hours have passed (Why this does not fit)

    She is well within the five-day emergency contraception window.

Takeaway: The copper IUD can address the recent exposure and the future plan together.

Case sources: [6] [11]

Case 4

A 21-year-old seeks emergency contraception four days after unprotected intercourse. BMI is 31 kg/m². She declines an IUD and can obtain any oral option today. Which is preferred?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. Levonorgestrel as a clearly superior day-four option (Why this does not fit)

    LNG can still be used, but it is not the preferred oral comparison at this timing.

  2. B. A routine daily combined pill dose (Why this does not fit)

    That is not a dedicated emergency regimen.

  3. C. Misoprostol alone (Why this does not fit)

    Misoprostol does not delay ovulation as emergency contraception.

  4. D. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg (Best answer)

    UPA is more effective than LNG at days three through five and is often favored when obesity is present.

Takeaway: At day four, UPA is the preferred available oral option.

Case sources: [11]

Case 5

A 33-year-old wants a long-acting method and less menstrual bleeding. Evaluation of her heavy regular periods has excluded pregnancy and structural or malignant causes. Which method best serves both goals?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. A 52-mg LNG-IUD licensed for heavy bleeding (Best answer)

    Endometrial suppression improves bleeding while providing long-term contraception.

  2. B. Copper IUD (Why this does not fit)

    It may worsen the heavy bleeding and cramping she wants to reduce.

  3. C. Withdrawal (Why this does not fit)

    It neither treats bleeding nor supplies the requested long-acting protection.

  4. D. Daily norethindrone pill as a long-acting device (Why this does not fit)

    It requires daily use and is not a long-acting device.

Takeaway: Choose a method whose bleeding effect matches the patient’s goal.

Case sources: [5] [6]

Case 6

A healthy 17-year-old athlete prefers DMPA because she does not want daily pills or a device. She asks whether bone effects prohibit its use. Which statement is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. DMPA causes permanent osteoporosis in every teenager (Why this does not fit)

    This overstates the evidence and turns a counseling issue into an absolute ban.

  2. B. Discuss bone loss and alternatives; bone concerns alone do not bar DMPA (Best answer)

    BMD often recovers after stopping, but completeness and long-term fracture consequences remain uncertain.

  3. C. DMPA increases bone density (Why this does not fit)

    Its hypoestrogenic effects can reduce BMD during use.

  4. D. All patients must stop at exactly two years regardless of circumstances (Why this does not fit)

    ACOG recommends individualized decisions rather than an automatic two-year stop.

Takeaway: Discuss the boxed warning without claiming either universal harm or guaranteed recovery.

Case sources: [7]

Case 7

A 23-year-old takes her combined oral contraceptive consistently and asks how it mainly prevents pregnancy. Which mechanism is most important?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Destruction of an implanted pregnancy each month (Why this does not fit)

    Combined pills do not work as monthly abortion treatment.

  2. B. An isolated physical blockage at the cervix with no hormonal effect (Why this does not fit)

    Mucus thickening contributes, but does not describe the major CHC action.

  3. C. Suppression of gonadotropin-driven ovulation (Best answer)

    Combined hormones suppress follicular stimulation and the ovulatory hormonal pattern.

  4. D. Increased gonadotropin secretion to exhaust the ovaries (Why this does not fit)

    This reverses the feedback direction and invents ovarian exhaustion.

Takeaway: The principal combined-method action is ovulation suppression.

Case sources: [2]

Case 8

A 29-year-old is 14 days postpartum and breastfeeding. She wants a daily contraceptive pill. She has no breast cancer or other progestin restriction. Which choice is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. A combined pill immediately (Why this does not fit)

    CHC is category 4 before 21 days postpartum.

  2. B. A combined patch because skin delivery avoids thrombosis (Why this does not fit)

    Transdermal contraception still exposes the patient to estrogen.

  3. C. No method until six months postpartum (Why this does not fit)

    Safe options exist well before six months.

  4. D. A suitable progestin-only pill (Best answer)

    It avoids the estrogen restriction during this high-VTE-risk period.

Takeaway: Early postpartum timing matters even without a previous clot.

Case sources: [1]

Case 9

A 35-year-old wants years of reversible contraception but declines all hormones. Her periods are light, and pregnancy and active pelvic infection are excluded. What best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Copper IUD, which impairs sperm function (Best answer)

    It is a long-acting nonhormonal method.

  2. B. Levonorgestrel IUD, which releases progestin locally (Why this does not fit)

    Local delivery still involves a progestin.

  3. C. Etonogestrel implant, which releases systemic progestin (Why this does not fit)

    The implant contains a systemic progestin.

  4. D. DMPA injection, which requires repeat progestin dosing (Why this does not fit)

    The injection is hormonal and requires repeat dosing.

Takeaway: Local hormones are still hormones when discussing preferences.

Case sources: [6]

Case 10

A 24-year-old wants an emergency pill after condom failure and asks about a progesterone-receptor modulator. Which drug and purpose are correctly paired in U.S. practice?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Mifepristone plus misoprostol as routine emergency contraception (Why this does not fit)

    That combination is a medication-abortion regimen, not the UPA emergency regimen.

  2. B. Ulipristal acetate to delay ovulation (Best answer)

    UPA is used for emergency contraception before an established pregnancy.

  3. C. Misoprostol alone to reliably prevent ovulation (Why this does not fit)

    Misoprostol does not have that emergency contraceptive action.

  4. D. Ethinyl estradiol alone as another name for ulipristal (Why this does not fit)

    These are distinct drugs with different pharmacology.

Takeaway: Similar receptor language does not make drug regimens interchangeable.

Case sources: [11]

Case 11

A 38-year-old has had two estrogen-associated DVTs and is now off anticoagulation. She wants highly effective reversible contraception, accepts an IUD, and has light periods. Which listed option is safest under U.S. MEC?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Combined estrogen-progestin pill (Why this does not fit)

    CHC is category 4 for this high-recurrence-risk history.

  2. B. Combined vaginal ring (Why this does not fit)

    The estrogen-related restriction also applies to the ring.

  3. C. Copper IUD (Best answer)

    It is category 1 for this VTE history and meets her preferences.

  4. D. DMPA injection (Why this does not fit)

    DMPA is category 3 in this high-recurrence-risk setting, unlike the copper IUD.

Takeaway: The original bank’s combined-pill answer after DVT is reversed and the stem now distinguishes the options.

Case sources: [1]

Case 12

A 26-year-old often misses daily medicines and wants a reversible contraceptive with a very low typical-use pregnancy rate. Why might an IUD or implant be useful?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. They guarantee zero pregnancies in every user (Why this does not fit)

    No method should be described as an absolute guarantee.

  2. B. They protect against all sexually transmitted infections (Why this does not fit)

    IUDs and implants do not provide STI protection.

  3. C. They require more precise daily dosing than pills (Why this does not fit)

    Neither an IUD nor an implant is taken daily.

  4. D. Protection relies less on repeated user actions (Best answer)

    Once placed, these methods maintain high effectiveness without daily dosing.

Takeaway: Typical-use effectiveness includes the demands the method places on the user.

Case sources: [3] [4]

Case 13

A 31-year-old is three months postpartum, breastfeeding, and prefers a daily estrogen-free pill. She asks whether progestin-only contraception is appropriate. Which counseling is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Offer a progestin-only pill; explain timing for that formulation (Best answer)

    It fits her stated preference and is compatible with breastfeeding.

  2. B. Explain that all hormonal methods are prohibited during breastfeeding (Why this does not fit)

    Breastfeeding does not exclude progestin-only methods.

  3. C. Say CHC is absolutely forbidden for the entire duration of breastfeeding (Why this does not fit)

    After 42 days, breastfeeding alone is category 2 for CHC, not category 4.

  4. D. Assume nursing eight times daily makes any pill unnecessary (Why this does not fit)

    LAM requires age of infant, amenorrhea and feeding-pattern criteria together.

Takeaway: Offer the requested estrogen-free method without inventing a lifelong lactation contraindication.

Case sources: [1] [9]

Case 14

A 34-year-old with BMI 44 kg/m² wants an implant but was told all systemic hormones are diluted by body fat and stop working. She takes no enzyme-inducing drugs. What is the best response?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Implants fail when BMI exceeds 30 because of body size (Why this does not fit)

    Obesity alone does not establish implant failure.

  2. B. The implant stays highly effective; obesity does not exclude all systemic methods (Best answer)

    The blanket dilution explanation is unsupported and should not deny her preference.

  3. C. Double the dose of every hormonal contraceptive to offset body size (Why this does not fit)

    This is not a validated response to body size.

  4. D. At this BMI, sterilization is the only effective contraceptive option (Why this does not fit)

    IUDs and implants remain effective reversible options.

Takeaway: Weight-related cautions are method and product specific.

Case sources: [1] [4]

Case 15

A 39-year-old does not want more children but declines sterilization and uterine devices. She requests years of reversible protection with little daily effort. Which offer best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Laparoscopic tubal sterilization (Why this does not fit)

    This provides permanent contraception, which she has declined; the request specifically calls for a reversible method outside the uterus.

  2. B. A daily combined oral contraceptive (Why this does not fit)

    This can provide effective reversible contraception but requires daily use, whereas she specifically requests years of protection with little daily effort.

  3. C. Etonogestrel implant (Best answer)

    It provides long-term reversible contraception outside the uterus.

  4. D. A diaphragm used with each episode of intercourse (Why this does not fit)

    A diaphragm is reversible but requires action with intercourse and has lower typical-use effectiveness than an implant.

Takeaway: Respect the patient’s boundaries while offering methods that meet the remaining goals.

Case sources: [3] [4]

Case 16

A patient received Nexplanon three years ago and wants to continue it. The device is correctly located and she has no new contraindication or interacting drug. What does the January 2026 FDA label permit?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. Mandatory replacement at three years under the current label (Why this does not fit)

    That repeats the older approved duration.

  2. B. Use indefinitely if no bleeding occurs (Why this does not fit)

    Amenorrhea does not extend approved duration indefinitely.

  3. C. Use for eight years because all progestin devices have the same duration (Why this does not fit)

    Eight years applies to certain IUD indications, not Nexplanon.

  4. D. Use for up to five years total (Best answer)

    The current FDA label extends the contraceptive duration to five years.

Takeaway: Identify the exact device and current labeled duration.

Case sources: [4]

Case 17

A 42-year-old with current breast cancer needs contraception and accepts an IUD. There is no uterine distortion or infection. Which method is U.S. MEC category 1?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Copper IUD (Best answer)

    It avoids progestin and estrogen exposure and is category 1 for current breast cancer.

  2. B. Levonorgestrel IUD (Why this does not fit)

    Current breast cancer is category 4 for the LNG-IUD despite local delivery.

  3. C. Etonogestrel implant (Why this does not fit)

    Current breast cancer is category 4 for the implant.

  4. D. Progestin-only pill (Why this does not fit)

    Estrogen-free does not mean unrestricted in hormone-sensitive malignancy.

Takeaway: Current breast cancer restricts hormonal methods, not just estrogen.

Case sources: [1]

Case 18

A 37-year-old smokes five cigarettes daily and asks how U.S. MEC classifies combined pills. Which answer is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Category 1 because smoking is light (Why this does not fit)

    The age-smoking combination still matters.

  2. B. Category 3, so risks usually outweigh advantages (Best answer)

    Age at least 35 with fewer than 15 cigarettes daily is category 3.

  3. C. Category 4 only because she is older than 35 (Why this does not fit)

    Category 4 in this smoking row requires at least 15 cigarettes daily; age alone is not the criterion.

  4. D. All IUDs are prohibited until she quits (Why this does not fit)

    Smoking does not impose that IUD restriction.

Takeaway: Category 3 and category 4 are different even when both favor an alternative.

Case sources: [1]

Case 19

A patient takes norethindrone 0.35 mg daily. Today she takes it five hours late and has had no unprotected intercourse in the previous five days. What should she do?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Use no backup because every progestin pill has a 24-hour grace period (Why this does not fit)

    That applies neither universally nor to norethindrone’s three-hour threshold.

  2. B. Discard the pack and stop contraception for a month (Why this does not fit)

    Stopping creates avoidable exposure and is unnecessary.

  3. C. Continue daily pills and use condoms or abstain for two days (Best answer)

    More than three hours late counts as missed for this formulation.

  4. D. Take five pills now (Why this does not fit)

    The number of hours late is not the number of pills to take.

Takeaway: The formulation determines the missed-pill rule.

Case sources: [9]

Case 20

A patient using drospirenone-only pills takes one active pill 28 hours after it was due. No other active pills were missed. What does CDC recommend?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Apply the norethindrone three-hour rule and stop the pack (Why this does not fit)

    Different progestin formulations have different guidance.

  2. B. Use emergency contraception automatically regardless of exposure (Why this does not fit)

    The stated single missed-pill interval does not automatically require EC.

  3. C. Take no further active pills until bleeding occurs (Why this does not fit)

    Interrupting the pack would extend the missed interval.

  4. D. Take the missed pill; continue the pack without backup (Best answer)

    A single late or missed active drospirenone pill with less than 48 hours elapsed does not require backup.

Takeaway: Do not transfer norethindrone instructions to drospirenone.

Case sources: [9]

Case 21

A 22-year-old takes ulipristal after unprotected intercourse and wants to restart her combined pill. She can reliably use condoms and return if needed. What is the standard plan?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Wait five days before restarting hormones, then use backup for seven days after restarting (Best answer)

    Early progestin exposure can reduce UPA’s ovulation-delaying effect.

  2. B. Restart hormones immediately because UPA and progestins reinforce each other (Why this does not fit)

    Their interaction can reduce UPA effectiveness.

  3. C. Avoid all contraception for three weeks (Why this does not fit)

    Nonhormonal protection can begin immediately and future exposure still matters.

  4. D. Use no condoms because UPA protects the rest of the cycle (Why this does not fit)

    Emergency pills do not provide ongoing protection.

Takeaway: UPA changes the timing of hormonal restart.

Case sources: [11]

Case 22

A 20-year-old takes levonorgestrel emergency contraception and plans to start a combined pill. What is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Wait five days as with ulipristal (Why this does not fit)

    That delay is not required after LNG.

  2. B. Start the pill immediately and use backup for seven days (Best answer)

    LNG EC does not require the five-day hormonal delay used after UPA.

  3. C. Take no further contraception until the next cycle (Why this does not fit)

    An immediate ongoing method helps prevent later exposures.

  4. D. Assume the emergency dose protects all future intercourse (Why this does not fit)

    Its purpose is the recent exposure, not ongoing contraception.

Takeaway: The restart instruction depends on the emergency drug.

Case sources: [11]

Case 23

A patient is four months postpartum, fully breastfeeding with no long feeding gaps, and has had no return of menses. She wants to rely temporarily on lactational amenorrhea. Which change means she no longer meets its criteria?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. The infant reaching four months alone (Why this does not fit)

    Four months remains within the under-six-month criterion.

  2. B. Declining an IUD (Why this does not fit)

    A device is not a requirement for LAM.

  3. C. Return of menstrual bleeding (Best answer)

    LAM requires amenorrhea as well as being under six months postpartum and fully or nearly fully breastfeeding.

  4. D. Being normotensive (Why this does not fit)

    Blood pressure is not one of the three defining LAM criteria.

Takeaway: Reassess LAM when menses, feeding patterns, or infant age changes.

Case sources: [1]

Case 24

A 24-year-old wants an IUD today but has mucopurulent cervical discharge and a positive gonorrhea test. She is not pregnant. What is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Insert immediately because all STI testing can occur on the same day (Why this does not fit)

    Same-day screening without evidence of infection differs from a known active infection.

  2. B. Refuse IUDs permanently (Why this does not fit)

    After treatment and resolution, she can be reassessed for placement.

  3. C. Require a normal Pap before treating the infection (Why this does not fit)

    Cervical cancer screening does not determine the need to treat gonorrhea.

  4. D. Treat infection, delay insertion, and offer interim contraception (Best answer)

    Active purulent cervicitis or gonorrhea is a contraindication to initiation.

Takeaway: Known active cervicitis differs from asymptomatic same-day STI screening.

Case sources: [10]

Case 25

A 28-year-old with Wilson disease wants a long-acting method and is open to hormones. Her periods are heavy and other IUD eligibility criteria are met. Which choice best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Levonorgestrel IUD (Best answer)

    It avoids copper and can improve heavy bleeding.

  2. B. Paragard (Why this does not fit)

    Wilson disease is a copper-IUD label contraindication and copper can worsen bleeding.

  3. C. Copper IUD with a doubled chelator dose chosen solely for contraception (Why this does not fit)

    Do not try to bypass the device contraindication with an unvalidated medication adjustment.

  4. D. No contraception because Wilson disease prohibits every method (Why this does not fit)

    Noncopper options can be considered using the complete medical history.

Takeaway: Copper-specific contraindications do not apply to every IUD.

Case sources: [5] [6]

Case 26

A 30-year-old stopped DMPA four months ago and has not resumed ovulation. Pregnancy testing is negative. She asks whether the injection caused permanent infertility. What counseling is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. Every user ovulates as soon as the last injection interval ends (Why this does not fit)

    Return is variable and can be delayed.

  2. B. Ovulation may return late after DMPA; delay alone does not prove permanent infertility (Best answer)

    The depot effect can persist after the scheduled injection interval.

  3. C. Absent menses at age 30 establishes that menopause has occurred (Why this does not fit)

    Other causes and the recent DMPA exposure must be considered.

  4. D. A copper IUD must be inserted before ovulation can resume (Why this does not fit)

    The copper IUD does not treat delayed return of ovulation.

Takeaway: Delayed fertility return is a method-specific counseling issue.

Case sources: [8]

Case 27

A combined-pill user misses two consecutive active pills in week two. She took all pills correctly in the prior seven days and has no recent unprotected intercourse. What is the standard immediate advice?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. Discard all active pills left in the pack rather than continue them (Why this does not fit)

    This prolongs the hormone-free interval unnecessarily.

  2. B. Follow the norethindrone missed-pill rule and use backup for two days (Why this does not fit)

    CHC has a different missed-pill pathway.

  3. C. Take the latest missed pill, continue the pack, and use backup through seven consecutive active pills (Best answer)

    At least 48 hours missed requires seven days of backup under CDC guidance.

  4. D. Take no corrective action, since missed pills matter only in week one (Why this does not fit)

    Two or more active misses still require corrective dosing and backup.

Takeaway: Missed-pill advice depends on formulation, number missed, and pack position.

Case sources: [2]

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