⌘ KStart free
0%
Skip to lesson

Cardiology

Heart failure through pressure, perfusion and treatment

Connect filling pressure and perfusion to heart failure symptoms, distinguish EF phenotypes, and choose chronic and acute treatments through clinical cases.

Two patients can have the same breathlessness and pulmonary congestion while one has an EF of 25% and the other an EF of 60%. The first question is whether a cardiac abnormality explains the syndrome. The next questions are which pressure is high, whether organs are perfused, and which treatment changes the patient's course.

A preserved fraction does not guarantee an adequate stroke volume or a low filling pressure.

Separate the ejected fraction from filling pressure

Heart failure is a clinical syndrome caused by structural or functional cardiac disease, supported by evidence such as congestion, raised filling pressure or natriuretic peptides. EF is stroke volume divided by end-diastolic volume. It describes a proportion, not the absolute forward output, contractile health of every myocardial segment or pressure needed to fill the ventricle. Significant valve regurgitation further separates total ejected volume from effective forward flow. [1] [4] [26]

The denominator changes the meaning of the fraction

Dilated ventricle

End-diastolic volume 180 mL
End-systolic volume 126 mL

Stroke volume 54 mL
EF 54 ÷ 180 = 30%

Smaller filling volume

End-diastolic volume 90 mL
End-systolic volume 36 mL

Stroke volume 54 mL
EF 54 ÷ 90 = 60%

These ventricles eject the same volume. Neither calculation tells you filling pressure. A stiff chamber can require high pressure to accept even a modest volume. Values illustrate arithmetic, not diagnostic cutoffs for chamber size. [26]

Common guideline and trial categories are HFrEF at EF ≤40%, HFmrEF at 41% to 49%, and HFpEF at ≥50%. With EF above 40%, seek objective evidence of increased filling pressure at rest or with exertion. The June 2026 second universal definition emphasizes clinical context and EF trajectory rather than rigid boundaries. Keep the conventional ranges to interpret existing evidence, while recognizing measurement variation and treatment benefit across adjacent ranges. [1] [4]

HFrEF often combines impaired contraction and ventricular dilation. HFpEF is heterogeneous: delayed relaxation, increased stiffness, vascular dysfunction, obesity, chronotropic limitation and atrial or right heart abnormalities can contribute. Concentric hypertrophy is common with longstanding hypertension but is not required. An S3 can accompany rapid filling into a volume-loaded chamber; an S4 reflects atrial contraction against a resistant ventricle and is absent in atrial fibrillation. Neither sound alone identifies an EF category. [33] [1] [3]

Why compensation becomes harmful

Reduced effective arterial perfusion activates sympathetic signaling and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Vasoconstriction supports pressure while increasing afterload; salt and water retention support filling while aggravating congestion. Sustained signaling promotes remodeling. Natriuretic peptides oppose these effects through natriuresis and vasodilation, but the response does not reliably restore normal circulation. A patient with low-output congestive LV failure may have a low cardiac index, high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and high systemic vascular resistance. Stable HFrEF need not have that entire profile. [1] [10]

Try it here · Checkpoint 1 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 1

A 67-year-old woman with exertional dyspnea has an LV end-diastolic volume of 100 mL and end-systolic volume of 40 mL, with no significant valve regurgitation. Which interpretation is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Stroke volume is 100 mL because end-diastolic volume is the amount present before systole and therefore all of it is ejected (Why this does not fit)

    Forty mL remains after systole, so the entire end-diastolic volume is not ejected.

  2. B. EF is 60%, which establishes HFpEF without further evidence (Why this does not fit)

    HFpEF requires a clinical syndrome with objective cardiac evidence, not preserved EF alone.

  3. C. EF is 60%, but filling pressure and the cause of dyspnea still require assessment (Best answer)

    The ejected fraction is (100 minus 40)/100; a preserved value cannot exclude high filling pressure.

  4. D. EF is 40%, establishing HFrEF (Why this does not fit)

    Forty percent is the residual end-systolic fraction; the ejected volume is 60 mL.

Takeaway: Calculate the fraction correctly, then ask a separate pressure question.

Case sources: [1] [26]

Establish the syndrome, then identify its cause

Raised left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures explain exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and sometimes crackles. Supine redistribution of blood can worsen symptoms. Raised systemic venous pressure produces JVD, dependent edema, hepatic congestion and ascites. Right and left findings often coexist. Clear lungs do not exclude chronic HF, and JVD does not identify its cause. Left heart disease commonly produces secondary RV failure; cor pulmonale specifically arises from pulmonary or pulmonary vascular disease. [1] [19]

History should establish time course, functional change, coronary symptoms, blood pressure, alcohol and cardiotoxic exposures, rhythm, family history and practical access to medicines. Examine perfusion and volume status. ECG, chest imaging, blood count, electrolytes, kidney function and echocardiography answer different questions. Echo assesses EF, valves, chamber geometry, RV function and filling indices. It cannot alone explain every patient's dyspnea. Ischemia can present without chest pain. [1] [2]

Use natriuretic peptides in context

In acute dyspnea, BNP below 100 pg/mL or NT-proBNP below 300 pg/mL can make HF less likely; these are commonly used acute exclusion thresholds, not universal diagnostic boundaries. Age, AF and kidney dysfunction can increase concentrations. Obesity can suppress them, including in HFpEF. An intermediate or unexpectedly low result requires integration with the examination and imaging; selected uncertain cases need exercise testing or invasive filling-pressure assessment. [31] [1] [27]

Sacubitril inhibits neprilysin, so BNP may rise early after starting sacubitril/valsartan. NT-proBNP is not a neprilysin substrate and is less confusing during that period. Do not dismiss a rising BNP automatically: both markers retain prognostic value, and worsening symptoms still require evaluation. [9] [10]

Stage describes disease history

A: risk factors without structural disease or HF symptoms. B: structural disease, abnormal filling pressure or qualifying biomarkers without current or prior HF symptoms. C: current or prior symptomatic HF. D: advanced symptoms that interfere with life and recur despite appropriate treatment.

NYHA class describes current limitation

I: ordinary activity is tolerated. II: ordinary activity produces symptoms. III: less than ordinary activity produces symptoms, with comfort at rest. IV: symptoms at rest or with any activity. Functional class can change with treatment.

A patient whose symptoms resolve remains stage C. Asymptomatic LV dysfunction is stage B and calls for prevention-focused treatment appropriate to its cause and EF, rather than automatic application of every symptomatic-HFrEF intervention. [1]

Do not stop at the syndrome label

Amyloid is suggested by disproportionate wall thickening, low ECG voltage, neuropathy or bilateral carpal tunnel disease. Begin the type assessment with serum free light chains and serum/urine immunofixation; a bone-tracer scan alone cannot safely exclude AL amyloidosis. HCM requires assessment of unexplained hypertrophy, systolic anterior mitral motion and dynamic outflow obstruction. Stress-associated apical dysfunction may be Takotsubo, but acute coronary disease and myocarditis must be evaluated. Coronary disease can coexist with Takotsubo. [15] [16] [17]

Build HFrEF therapy around complementary benefits

For symptomatic chronic HFrEF, establish the four tolerated foundational classes promptly. There is no requirement to maximize one before introducing the others. Loop diuretics relieve congestion alongside these treatments; relief of edema is not equivalent to proven survival benefit. Dose selection follows blood pressure, perfusion, kidney function, potassium and patient priorities. [1] [2] [28]

Four foundations and the decision that keeps each safe
ClassClinical roleSafety distinction
ARNI, or ACE inhibitor/ARB when appropriateInterrupt maladaptive RAAS signaling; sacubitril also augments natriuretic peptide effects.Never overlap an ACE inhibitor with ARNI. Allow at least 36 hours between them in either direction.
Evidence-based beta-blockerCarvedilol, metoprolol succinate or bisoprolol reduce adverse outcomes.Start or increase when compensated; reconsider during shock or serious bradycardia.
Steroidal MRASpironolactone or eplerenone blocks aldosterone-mediated injury.Initiate when eGFR is above 30 mL/min/1.73 m² and potassium below 5.0 mmol/L, with serial monitoring.
SGLT2 inhibitorDapagliflozin or empagliflozin benefits HF with or without diabetes.Check volume and renal suitability; counsel about genital infection and ketoacidosis during illness or fasting.

[1] [2] [8] [10] [20]

The HF guideline advises against ARNI in patients with any history of angioedema; prior ACE inhibitor/ARB-related angioedema is also a labeled contraindication. ACE inhibitors, ARBs and ARNI are avoided in pregnancy because of fetal toxicity. Breastfeeding requires a separate drug-specific assessment; enalapril has very low milk exposure and can be used when needed. A dry ACE-inhibitor cough may prompt substitution, but hemoptysis or unexplained weight loss requires its own diagnostic workup. [29] [10] [14]

Interpret adverse effects before sacrificing benefit

Check kidney function and potassium after initiation or dose changes. A small asymptomatic renal change during effective decongestion does not automatically require stopping beneficial therapy. In CKD, KDIGO advises reassessment when creatinine increases by more than 30% within four weeks of starting or increasing an ACE inhibitor or ARB. Evaluate for volume depletion, NSAIDs, renovascular disease and other causes. A rise from 0.9 to 1.2 mg/dL is about 33%, not less than 30%. Symptomatic hypotension is a separate reason to reassess. [1] [11]

Unexpected potassium of 5.8 mmol/L warrants prompt reassessment, medication review and repeat testing within three days or sooner according to clinical status. Illness, AKI, symptoms or ECG changes lower the threshold for urgent care. If potassium cannot be maintained below 5.5 on a steroidal MRA, discontinue it. Eplerenone can reduce spironolactone-associated gynecomastia, but it does not eliminate hyperkalemia risk. Severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes requires emergency membrane stabilization, potassium redistribution and elimination with monitoring. [1] [13]

For orthostatic symptoms after marked fluid loss, reassess congestion and unnecessary blood-pressure-lowering drugs before reducing every foundation. A loop dose that was needed during edema may be excessive after decongestion. Fludrocortisone expands sodium and water stores and is contraindicated in HF; it is not a routine way to preserve a medication list. SGLT2-associated ketoacidosis can occur with modest glucose. Dapagliflozin should be withheld at least three days before major surgery or prolonged fasting and resumed when clinically stable with oral intake. [10] [12] [20]

Add treatment for a defined residual problem

Hydralazine plus isosorbide dinitrate is recommended for self-identified Black patients with persistent NYHA III/IV HFrEF on optimal therapy, and may be considered for patients unable to take RAAS-directed drugs regardless of race. Ivabradine targets sinus rhythm with resting rate ≥70/min in selected stable symptomatic patients with EF ≤35% despite maximally tolerated beta-blockade. It does not control AF. Digoxin may reduce HF hospitalization in selected persistent symptoms; it has not established a survival benefit and requires attention to kidney function, interactions and toxicity. [1] [23] [24]

Verapamil and diltiazem can worsen HFrEF through negative inotropy. Amlodipine may treat residual hypertension or angina without serving as a disease-modifying HF foundation. NSAIDs can cause sodium retention and renal dysfunction. The correct response to apparent treatment failure may be removal of an aggravating exposure or resolution of a prescription-access barrier. [1] [2]

Treat preserved, mildly reduced and improved EF deliberately

HFpEF treatment begins with a confirmed syndrome, relief of congestion and identification of treatable contributors. Begin an SGLT2 inhibitor early when suitable, alongside exercise, weight management and treatment of hypertension, AF, kidney disease and ischemia. Lifestyle care should not become a reason to postpone effective medication. Beta-blockers need another indication, such as rate control or coronary disease; they are not universal HFpEF therapy. [3] [7]

Finerenone, a nonsteroidal MRA, received a US indication in 2025 for HF with LVEF ≥40%. Consider it within current HFpEF care with potassium and kidney monitoring. Do not initiate if potassium exceeds 5.0 mmol/L or eGFR is below 25 mL/min/1.73 m². These thresholds differ from steroidal-MRA initiation criteria in HFrEF. Do not casually combine MRAs. The supporting benefit concerns HF events and a cardiovascular composite, not proof of a separate mortality reduction in every patient. [3] [5]

For obesity-associated HFpEF, incretin-based treatment can improve weight and health status. SUMMIT found fewer cardiovascular-death-or-worsening-HF events with tirzepatide, driven by fewer worsening-HF events; it did not establish isolated cardiovascular mortality reduction. Discuss gastrointestinal effects, suitability and access. Selected patients may benefit from ARNI or ARB, particularly toward the lower preserved EF range. [3] [6]

In HFmrEF, SGLT2 outcome evidence is stronger than simply assuming every HFrEF recommendation has identical support. Consider other therapies using the clinical phenotype, especially toward the lower EF range. HF with improved EF denotes improvement after previously reduced EF; symptomatic recovery is not proof that the disease is cured. Continue appropriate HFrEF therapy to reduce relapse risk. [1] [4] [7]

Try it here · Checkpoint 2 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 21

A 73-year-old man with confirmed HFpEF, EF 55%, has recurrent congestion despite an SGLT2 inhibitor and appropriate loop diuresis. Potassium is 4.4 mmol/L and eGFR is 42. He is not taking an MRA or a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor. Which additional option has a current US HF indication covering this EF?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Ivabradine solely because he has HFpEF (Why this does not fit)

    Its selected HFrEF indication is not established by preserved EF and no qualifying sinus-rate information.

  2. B. Diltiazem as a proven universal HFpEF event-reducing foundation (Why this does not fit)

    It may serve a selected rate/BP indication but does not have that universal disease-modifying role.

  3. C. Finerenone with potassium and renal monitoring (Best answer)

    The 2025 HF indication covers LVEF at least 40%, and his provided values meet initiation limits.

  4. D. Routine chronic IV dobutamine for recurrent edema (Why this does not fit)

    Inotropes are not routine therapy for a stable perfused patient with this phenotype.

Takeaway: Newer HFpEF options require their own EF, potassium and renal criteria.

Case sources: [3] [5]

Match acute treatment to congestion and perfusion

Two independent bedside questions

Warm and congested

Adequate perfusion, excess filling pressure.

IV loop diuresis and treatment of the trigger. Vasodilators may help when pressure permits.

Cold and congested

Hypoperfusion with excess filling pressure.

Urgent shock assessment, monitored circulatory support and individualized decongestion.

Cold without clear congestion

Determine whether filling is inadequate.

A cautious fluid trial is for an underfilled patient, not every low-output state.

Warm without congestion

No current overload or hypoperfusion.

Optimize chronic treatment and investigate other causes of symptoms.

Temperature terms describe clinical perfusion, not measured body temperature. Reassess blood pressure, mentation, urine output, extremities and congestion after treatment. [1] [28]

Hypoxemic pulmonary edema may require oxygen and noninvasive ventilation. Severe hypertension can make rapid afterload reduction with IV nitrates useful when safe. Cardiogenic shock with hypotension and organ hypoperfusion requires critical care, treatment of the cause and selected vasopressor/inotrope or mechanical support. Do not initiate or increase beta-blockade in shock. Conversely, a stable, adequately perfused patient receiving IV diuresis does not automatically need an established beta-blocker stopped. [1] [2]

Search for acute coronary disease, arrhythmia, infection, uncontrolled pressure, worsening valve disease and medication or access problems. Reassess renal function, electrolytes and urine response during decongestion. Nesiritide is not routine acute HF treatment: ASCEND-HF found no significant clinical outcome benefit and more hypotension, without a significant increase in its worsening-renal-function endpoint. [1] [21] [28]

Right-sided and pericardial emergencies need a different plan

Inferior infarction with hypotension, JVD and clear lungs suggests RV involvement; right-sided ECG leads and echo help. Arrange urgent reperfusion. Avoid nitrates in this hypotensive setting and consider cautious volume support only if filling is inadequate. This does not mean all chronic RV failure should receive fluid: a congested patient may need careful diuresis. Lung-related pulmonary hypertension requires treatment of the lung disorder, with oxygen when indicated; routine pulmonary arterial hypertension drugs are not established treatment for ordinary COPD-associated disease. [19] [22]

Kussmaul sign is a rise or failure of the JVP to fall with inspiration, suggesting impaired right-sided filling, as in constriction, restriction or RV infarction. It is not a typical isolated tamponade finding. Tamponade is suggested by an effusion with hemodynamic compromise, pulsus paradoxus and right-sided chamber collapse on echo; urgent drainage treats the mechanical obstruction. Rapid accumulation of even a small effusion can cause tamponade, so size alone does not establish or exclude it. Constriction is a pericardial limitation with ventricular interdependence and often prominent systemic congestion. Distinguish both from intrinsic myocardial failure. [30] [18] [22]

Use electrical criteria and the patient's trajectory

An ICD prevents selected arrhythmic deaths; it does not directly correct filling pressure. A common primary-prevention indication is persistent EF ≤35%, NYHA II/III symptoms despite chronic optimized therapy and expected meaningful survival beyond one year. Reassess after a sufficient treatment period, commonly at least three months, with at least 40 days after MI and generally at least 90 days after revascularization before routine primary-prevention implantation. Selected ischemic patients with NYHA I and EF ≤30% also qualify. A low EF measured days after infarction is not enough for routine immediate primary-prevention implantation. [32] [1]

CRT treats electrical dyssynchrony. The strongest standard pattern is EF ≤35%, sinus rhythm, LBBB with QRS ≥150 ms, and NYHA II/III or ambulatory IV symptoms despite therapy. Other patterns have more conditional indications; a narrow QRS does not justify conventional CRT solely because EF is low. Distinguish this from pacing for conduction disease. Mobitz II requires identifiable atrial activity with constant conducted PR intervals and intermittent failed conduction; AF cannot supply that PR pattern. Persistent acquired Mobitz II without a reversible cause warrants pacing assessment. [1] [25]

Repeated admissions, progressive end-organ dysfunction, hypotension that limits therapy and severe symptoms despite treatment warrant an advanced-HF team. Consider transplantation or durable mechanical support in eligible patients, and integrate symptom-focused and palliative care according to goals. IV inotropes are selected bridge or palliative treatments, not an automatic consequence of NYHA IV. Follow-up must address tolerability, functional recovery, congestion and practical access as well as EF. [1] [2]

Try it here · Checkpoint 3 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 31

A 66-year-old man with EF 27% remains NYHA III after six months of optimized therapy. He is in sinus rhythm with LBBB and QRS 166 ms. He has good expected survival and no reversible cause of the conduction pattern. Which additional strategy directly addresses dyssynchrony?

Show answer and explanations for case 31
  1. A. ICD shock therapy alone (Why this does not fit)

    An ICD treats malignant arrhythmias but does not by itself provide resynchronization.

  2. B. CRT assessment, including whether a defibrillator component is appropriate (Best answer)

    The combination of persistent low EF, symptoms, sinus rhythm and wide LBBB fits a strong CRT indication.

  3. C. A standard single-chamber RV pacemaker solely to correct the LBBB and restore ventricular synchrony (Why this does not fit)

    Conventional RV-only pacing is not equivalent to CRT and can add ventricular dyssynchrony.

  4. D. Ivabradine solely because the QRS is wide (Why this does not fit)

    Ivabradine selection depends on qualifying sinus rate and other criteria, not QRS width.

Takeaway: The electrical pattern adds information that EF alone cannot supply.

Case sources: [1]

Apply pressure, perfusion and treatment decisions

Case 2

A 74-year-old man with longstanding hypertension has new orthopnea and edema. EF is 58%; echo shows left atrial enlargement and abnormal diastolic indices, and NT-proBNP is increased. Hemoglobin and thyroid studies are normal. What best explains the findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. HFpEF with increased filling pressure despite preserved EF (Best answer)

    Congestion plus objective filling abnormalities supports the syndrome without reduced EF.

  2. B. Isolated venous insufficiency as the complete explanation for both the edema and orthopnea (Why this does not fit)

    Leg edema may fit, but orthopnea and left-sided filling abnormalities are not explained.

  3. C. HFrEF defined by any abnormal relaxation (Why this does not fit)

    HFrEF refers to reduced ejected fraction; abnormal relaxation is not interchangeable with it.

  4. D. Physiologic aging with no cardiac syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    New symptomatic congestion and corroborating tests require a pathologic explanation.

Takeaway: Symptoms and pressure evidence make preserved-EF disease clinically meaningful.

Case sources: [1] [3]

Case 3

A 61-year-old woman with BMI 43 kg/m² has progressive exertional dyspnea. EF is 62%, resting echo filling indices are indeterminate, and NT-proBNP is 110 pg/mL. Spirometry and hemoglobin are normal. Which approach is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Diagnose HFpEF solely from BMI and EF (Why this does not fit)

    Both increase suspicion in context but do not prove the mechanism of symptoms.

  2. B. Exclude HFpEF because NT-proBNP is below an acute exclusion threshold (Why this does not fit)

    Obesity can suppress natriuretic peptides, and an acute threshold is not a definitive outpatient exclusion test.

  3. C. Start a PAH-specific vasodilator based on dyspnea alone (Why this does not fit)

    Pulmonary arterial hypertension has not been established and requires a different evaluation.

  4. D. Use structured HFpEF assessment and consider exercise-based filling-pressure evaluation if uncertainty persists (Best answer)

    The unresolved exertional symptoms and limitations of resting tests justify additional functional assessment.

Takeaway: An unexpectedly low peptide in obesity can leave the diagnosis open.

Case sources: [3] [27] [31]

Case 4

Three weeks after replacing enalapril with sacubitril/valsartan, a 56-year-old man feels better, has lost edema and has stable kidney function. BNP has risen modestly while NT-proBNP has fallen. What is the best interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. NT-proBNP falls because neprilysin directly degrades it, so a decrease proves the biomarker is no longer interpretable during ARNI therapy (Why this does not fit)

    NT-proBNP is not a neprilysin substrate.

  2. B. Early neprilysin inhibition can increase BNP; interpret the trend with clinical status and NT-proBNP (Best answer)

    The divergent biomarkers can occur during beneficial treatment, without making every future BNP rise benign.

  3. C. The BNP result establishes recurrent pulmonary edema (Why this does not fit)

    Clinical improvement and the drug effect make that conclusion unsupported.

  4. D. Both tests are permanently unusable during ARNI treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Both retain prognostic value; early interpretation differs.

Takeaway: ARNI changes early BNP interpretation, not the need to assess the patient.

Case sources: [9] [10]

Case 5

A 59-year-old woman has an incidental EF of 36% during evaluation after cardiotoxic therapy. She has never had dyspnea, edema or exercise limitation. Which classification is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Stage C because every EF below 40% implies symptomatic HF (Why this does not fit)

    Stage C requires current or prior HF symptoms or signs.

  2. B. Stage D because the cause is a cardiotoxic exposure (Why this does not fit)

    Cause does not establish advanced refractory symptoms.

  3. C. Stage A solely because she is asymptomatic (Why this does not fit)

    Stage A lacks the established structural abnormality present here.

  4. D. Stage B pre-HF (Best answer)

    Structural systolic dysfunction without current or prior HF symptoms fits pre-HF.

Takeaway: Structural disease and symptom history jointly determine stage.

Case sources: [1]

Case 6

A 68-year-old man with previously hospitalized HFrEF and EF 32% is comfortable seated but must stop after walking from his bedroom to the kitchen. This is less exertion than his usual daily activity. Which description best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Stage B and NYHA I (Why this does not fit)

    Prior symptomatic HF prevents stage B classification, and his activity is clearly limited.

  2. B. Stage C and NYHA IV (Why this does not fit)

    The stem specifies comfort at rest, favoring class III over IV.

  3. C. Stage C and NYHA III (Best answer)

    He has established symptomatic HF with symptoms during less than ordinary activity but comfort at rest.

  4. D. Stage D solely because his EF is 32% (Why this does not fit)

    Stage D requires an advanced refractory trajectory, not an EF threshold alone.

Takeaway: NYHA class captures current limitation; stage retains the disease history.

Case sources: [1]

Case 7

A 72-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy has cool extremities, oliguria and pulmonary edema. Cardiac index is 1.7 L/min/m² and wedge pressure is 28 mm Hg. Which compensatory response most likely aggravates her LV workload?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Aldosterone suppression causing sodium wasting (Why this does not fit)

    RAAS activation tends toward sodium retention in this physiology.

  2. B. Suppression of sympathetic tone with generalized vasodilation (Why this does not fit)

    Low effective perfusion usually increases sympathetic activation rather than suppressing it.

  3. C. Natriuretic peptide activity causing sustained systemic hypertension (Why this does not fit)

    Natriuretic peptides oppose vasoconstriction and salt retention rather than creating this afterload response.

  4. D. Angiotensin-mediated vasoconstriction increasing systemic resistance (Best answer)

    This supports arterial pressure but increases the resistance against which the failing LV ejects.

Takeaway: Compensation can support pressure while worsening afterload and congestion.

Case sources: [1] [10]

Case 8

A 70-year-old man with severe COPD and chronic hypoxemia develops edema and JVD. Echo shows RV dilation and dysfunction, preserved LV function and no major left-sided valve disease. Evaluation attributes pulmonary hypertension to lung disease. Which plan best addresses the cause?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Apply HFrEF four-class therapy solely because the RV is dilated (Why this does not fit)

    Evidence for symptomatic LV HFrEF cannot automatically be transferred to this cause of RV failure.

  2. B. Optimize lung disease, provide oxygen when indicated and manage congestion carefully (Best answer)

    Treatment targets the pulmonary driver and the RV volume burden, with specialist assessment for severe or uncertain disease.

  3. C. Routine sildenafil for all COPD-associated pulmonary hypertension regardless of lung disease severity or oxygen need (Why this does not fit)

    PAH-directed treatment is not routine therapy for group 3 COPD-associated disease.

  4. D. Avoid diuretics despite edema to preserve RV preload (Why this does not fit)

    Some acute underfilled RV states need cautious fluid, but this patient is systemically congested. Carefully monitored decongestion can be appropriate while treating the lung disease.

Takeaway: Cor pulmonale calls for treatment of the pulmonary cause.

Case sources: [19]

Case 9

A 52-year-old woman has newly diagnosed nonischemic HFrEF, EF 29%, NYHA II symptoms, BP 122/76 mm Hg, eGFR 76 and potassium 4.3. After decongestion she takes low-dose sacubitril/valsartan and carvedilol. What is the best strategy?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Replace both drugs with furosemide because edema has resolved (Why this does not fit)

    Diuretics address volume and do not replace disease-modifying treatment.

  2. B. Add digoxin before considering an MRA or SGLT2 inhibitor (Why this does not fit)

    Selected adjunctive benefit does not supersede the missing foundational classes.

  3. C. Maximize carvedilol over several months before considering any additional foundational class (Why this does not fit)

    Current consensus favors timely introduction of all tolerated foundations, not a mandatory sequential maximum-dose process.

  4. D. Introduce an MRA and SGLT2 inhibitor as tolerated while titrating the existing drugs (Best answer)

    Her renal function, potassium and stability support completing complementary foundational treatment promptly.

Takeaway: Establish breadth of tolerated therapy early.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 10

A 63-year-old man with stable EF 31% takes atenolol for hypertension. His clinician wants a beta-blocker with established HFrEF outcome evidence. Which replacement is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Metoprolol succinate (Best answer)

    The extended-release succinate formulation is an evidence-based HFrEF option.

  2. B. Propranolol (Why this does not fit)

    It is a beta-blocker but not one of the three agents with the cited HFrEF outcome recommendation.

  3. C. Labetalol (Why this does not fit)

    Its antihypertensive role does not establish it as a foundational HFrEF beta-blocker.

  4. D. Metoprolol tartrate as an interchangeable evidence base (Why this does not fit)

    The mortality evidence supporting the guideline recommendation is for succinate, not automatic formulation equivalence.

Takeaway: The agent and formulation matter, not merely the drug class name.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 11

A 60-year-old woman took lisinopril at 08:00 today. A switch to sacubitril/valsartan is planned after confirming stable pressure and kidney function. She has never had angioedema. What is required?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Give the first ARNI dose tonight and continue lisinopril for a week (Why this does not fit)

    Overlap is contraindicated because combined bradykinin effects increase angioedema risk.

  2. B. Allow at least 36 hours after the last lisinopril dose before ARNI (Best answer)

    The label specifies the interval when switching between an ACE inhibitor and ARNI.

  3. C. Wait only until the next scheduled lisinopril dose (Why this does not fit)

    A once-daily interval can be shorter than the required washout.

  4. D. Use no washout because valsartan is an ARB (Why this does not fit)

    The sacubitril component makes the ACE inhibitor transition distinct from a simple ACE-to-ARB switch.

Takeaway: ACE inhibitor and ARNI must be separated in time.

Case sources: [10]

Case 12

A 57-year-old man with HFrEF previously developed tongue swelling attributed to enalapril and required emergency airway observation. Which proposed prescription is contraindicated by that history?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Metoprolol succinate (Why this does not fit)

    The past bradykinin-mediated reaction does not itself prohibit an evidence-based beta-blocker.

  2. B. Spironolactone when renal function and potassium are suitable (Why this does not fit)

    Its suitability depends on other factors; ACE-related angioedema alone is not the cited exclusion.

  3. C. Sacubitril/valsartan (Best answer)

    The ARNI label contraindicates use with a history of ACE inhibitor/ARB-related angioedema.

  4. D. Dapagliflozin (Why this does not fit)

    Prior ACE-related angioedema is not itself a contraindication to this separate class.

Takeaway: Changing the ACE inhibitor name does not make ARNI safe after this reaction.

Case sources: [10]

Case 13

A 76-year-old woman with EF 28% remains symptomatic on ARNI, an evidence-based beta-blocker and an SGLT2 inhibitor. eGFR is 24 mL/min/1.73 m² and potassium is 5.2 mmol/L. What is the best decision about starting spironolactone?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Defer initiation and address renal and potassium limitations (Best answer)

    Both results fall outside recommended steroidal-MRA initiation criteria in HFrEF.

  2. B. Use finerenone solely to bypass these abnormal results (Why this does not fit)

    Finerenone also has renal/potassium limits, and its cited HF indication is EF at least 40%, unlike her EF.

  3. C. Substitute eplerenone to eliminate the potassium concern (Why this does not fit)

    Eplerenone also impairs potassium excretion and does not bypass these constraints.

  4. D. Start because any eGFR above 15 meets the HFrEF threshold for steroidal MRA initiation (Why this does not fit)

    The recommended initiation threshold is above 30, with potassium below 5.0.

Takeaway: MRA selection cannot bypass unsafe renal and potassium conditions.

Case sources: [1] [5]

Case 14

Five days after a spironolactone increase, a 66-year-old man has an unexpected nonhemolyzed potassium of 5.8 mmol/L. He feels well, kidney function is unchanged and ECG shows no hyperkalemic changes. Which response is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Review potassium sources and interacting drugs, adjust or hold the MRA as appropriate, and repeat promptly within three days or sooner (Best answer)

    This addresses a potentially progressive adverse effect while tailoring urgency to stability and renal status.

  2. B. Leave the dose unchanged and check at a routine visit in six weeks (Why this does not fit)

    An unexpected new increase requires a much earlier safety assessment.

  3. C. Administer emergency IV calcium solely because potassium is 5.8 with a normal ECG, then discharge without reviewing the MRA or arranging earlier repeat testing (Why this does not fit)

    Calcium is for cardiac membrane stabilization in appropriate emergency settings; the presented stable result calls for prompt assessment rather than this automatic intervention.

  4. D. Replace spironolactone with the same dose of eplerenone and omit repeat testing (Why this does not fit)

    Changing steroidal MRAs does not remove hyperkalemia risk.

Takeaway: Unexpected hyperkalemia needs a specific early follow-up plan.

Case sources: [1] [13]

Case 15

A 79-year-old woman taking an ARB, spironolactone and potassium supplements presents with weakness after several days of poor intake. Potassium is 6.7 mmol/L, creatinine has doubled and ECG shows QRS widening. What is the immediate priority?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Stop the supplement and arrange an outpatient test next week (Why this does not fit)

    Severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes poses an immediate arrhythmic risk.

  2. B. Provide monitored emergency treatment including IV calcium and insulin with glucose, while planning potassium elimination and treating AKI (Best answer)

    Calcium stabilizes the myocardium; redistribution and elimination address potassium, with glucose monitoring and reassessment.

  3. C. Treat only with an oral potassium binder and discharge when it is swallowed (Why this does not fit)

    Potassium elimination alone is too slow to address immediate cardiac toxicity without monitoring and acute treatment.

  4. D. Switch spironolactone to eplerenone before treating the ECG change (Why this does not fit)

    The alternative also retains potassium and does not treat acute electrical toxicity.

Takeaway: Treat severe hyperkalemic electrical toxicity immediately.

Case sources: [13]

Case 16

Ten days after starting an ACE inhibitor, a 64-year-old man with HFrEF and persistent albuminuric CKD has creatinine 1.2 mg/dL, increased from 0.9. He reports dizziness on standing after diarrhea. What is the best interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. The result proves irreversible ACE-inhibitor nephrotoxicity (Why this does not fit)

    Volume depletion and hemodynamic changes are plausible reversible causes.

  2. B. The drug must be permanently prohibited regardless of recovery because any creatinine rise after initiation proves irreversible toxicity (Why this does not fit)

    Temporary adjustment and correction of contributing causes may permit later use.

  3. C. The rise is about 33%; assess volume depletion, pressure and medications and adjust treatment as needed (Best answer)

    The increase exceeds the KDIGO CKD threshold of more than 30% within four weeks and accompanies a convincing hypovolemic history.

  4. D. The rise is 25%, so no assessment is needed (Why this does not fit)

    The change is divided by the baseline 0.9, giving about 33%, and symptoms independently matter.

Takeaway: Correct arithmetic and symptoms both guide renal-safety decisions.

Case sources: [11]

Case 17

A 71-year-old woman with HFrEF loses 6 kg during decongestion. At follow-up she has no edema, low JVP and orthostatic dizziness on a high loop-diuretic dose. Which adjustment should be considered first after confirming no other acute cause?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Stop every disease-modifying drug permanently (Why this does not fit)

    That sacrifices long-term benefit without first correcting the apparent volume problem.

  2. B. Increase the loop dose because dizziness indicates congestion (Why this does not fit)

    Low JVP, resolved edema and marked weight loss support depletion rather than further congestion.

  3. C. Reduce excess diuretic exposure and reassess volume and other pressure-lowering drugs (Best answer)

    The current findings suggest overdiuresis, allowing a targeted adjustment while preserving tolerated HF foundations.

  4. D. Add fludrocortisone to retain sodium while maintaining the same loop dose and all other pressure-lowering therapy unchanged (Why this does not fit)

    Sodium retention can worsen HF, and fludrocortisone is contraindicated in this setting.

Takeaway: Reassess the need for the decongestion dose once excess fluid is gone.

Case sources: [10] [12]

Case 18

A 58-year-old man with HFrEF develops painful breast enlargement on spironolactone. Potassium is 4.5 mmol/L and eGFR is 68. Which option best preserves MRA benefit?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Consider eplerenone with continued renal and potassium monitoring (Best answer)

    Greater receptor selectivity can reduce endocrine adverse effects, while hyperkalemia risk still requires monitoring.

  2. B. Replace spironolactone with amlodipine (Why this does not fit)

    Amlodipine is not an MRA and does not preserve its HFrEF benefit.

  3. C. Replace it with digoxin as an equivalent aldosterone blocker (Why this does not fit)

    Digoxin has a different mechanism and is not a substitute for MRA benefit.

  4. D. Continue spironolactone and add potassium supplementation routinely (Why this does not fit)

    Supplementation does not address gynecomastia and can increase potassium risk.

Takeaway: Endocrine intolerance and potassium intolerance are different problems.

Case sources: [1]

Case 19

A 49-year-old man with EF 27% asks why dapagliflozin was prescribed when his HbA1c is 5.4% and he has no diabetes. Which explanation is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. The prescription assumes occult diabetes despite the result (Why this does not fit)

    HF is a separate evidence-based indication.

  2. B. Trials demonstrated HFrEF benefit in patients with and without diabetes (Best answer)

    Normal glycemia does not remove the established HF indication, though safety assessment remains necessary.

  3. C. The drug is used only as a stronger replacement for a loop diuretic when edema persists despite standard treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Its HF outcome role extends beyond short-term fluid relief and does not make loop needs irrelevant.

  4. D. It has no HF indication unless an MRA is contraindicated (Why this does not fit)

    SGLT2 inhibition is a foundational class, not reserved for failure of another class.

Takeaway: HF benefit is not contingent on glucose lowering.

Case sources: [8] [20]

Case 20

A 65-year-old woman taking dapagliflozin for HF is scheduled for elective abdominal surgery with prolonged fasting. What instruction best addresses a drug-specific perioperative risk?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Continue through fasting because only marked hyperglycemia can cause ketoacidosis during the perioperative period (Why this does not fit)

    SGLT2-associated ketoacidosis can occur with modest glucose.

  2. B. Withhold only the morning dose and automatically restart while still fasting (Why this does not fit)

    That is shorter than the recommended interval and ignores ongoing risk.

  3. C. Replace it temporarily with high-dose insulin despite no diabetes (Why this does not fit)

    Insulin substitution is not a routine preventive instruction for a person without an insulin indication.

  4. D. Withhold at least three days before surgery and resume when stable with oral intake (Best answer)

    This follows dapagliflozin labeling to reduce fasting-related ketoacidosis risk.

Takeaway: Plan SGLT2 interruption around fasting, not only glucose concentration.

Case sources: [20]

Case 22

A 62-year-old woman with obesity and HFpEF asks whether tirzepatide has been shown to prevent cardiovascular death by itself. Which description of SUMMIT is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. It proved an isolated cardiovascular mortality reduction in all HF phenotypes (Why this does not fit)

    The trial studied obesity with HFpEF and did not establish a separate cardiovascular death benefit.

  2. B. It showed weight loss but measured no clinical HF events (Why this does not fit)

    Clinical HF events were part of the primary outcome.

  3. C. It established that diuretics and SGLT2 inhibitors should be stopped when tirzepatide starts (Why this does not fit)

    The trial does not justify discarding otherwise appropriate HF care.

  4. D. It reduced a composite of cardiovascular death or worsening HF and improved health status; the event benefit was driven by worsening HF (Best answer)

    This distinguishes the demonstrated outcome from an unsupported standalone mortality claim.

Takeaway: Name the demonstrated endpoint when counseling about benefit.

Case sources: [6]

Case 23

A 69-year-old woman has persistent symptomatic HF, EF 46%, left atrial enlargement and increased filling pressure. She has no diabetes. Which statement best reflects treatment evidence?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Every HFrEF drug has exactly the same strength of evidence at EF 46% (Why this does not fit)

    Evidence differs across therapies and EF ranges.

  2. B. Preserved stroke volume would exclude HF despite measured high filling pressure and persistent symptoms of congestion (Why this does not fit)

    The syndrome is not determined by one forward-volume measurement.

  3. C. An SGLT2 inhibitor is supported, with other drugs selected according to phenotype and tolerability (Best answer)

    This uses direct evidence for the mildly reduced range while preserving individualized care.

  4. D. No outcome-directed therapy is supported until EF falls below 40% (Why this does not fit)

    DELIVER enrolled symptomatic HF with EF above 40% and showed benefit.

Takeaway: Use evidence spanning mildly reduced EF instead of a rigid treatment cliff.

Case sources: [1] [7]

Case 24

A 44-year-old man treated for dilated cardiomyopathy has EF improved from 25% to 53% and no current symptoms. He asks to stop all four foundational medicines. What is the best recommendation?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Stop them because the current EF proves permanent cure (Why this does not fit)

    Improved EF does not exclude relapse of the underlying disease.

  2. B. Continue only the loop diuretic even though he is euvolemic and stop the four disease-modifying therapies (Why this does not fit)

    The need for a symptom-directed diuretic may decrease, while disease-modifying therapy remains important.

  3. C. Reclassify him as stage A with no structural disease history (Why this does not fit)

    Past symptomatic cardiomyopathy remains relevant.

  4. D. Continue appropriate HFrEF therapy while reassessing doses and tolerability (Best answer)

    Guidelines recommend continued treatment after EF improvement to reduce relapse risk.

Takeaway: Recovery changes surveillance and dosing needs, not automatically the need for treatment.

Case sources: [1] [4]

Case 25

A 55-year-old man who self-identifies as Black has EF 26% and persistent NYHA III symptoms despite tolerated ARNI, carvedilol, spironolactone and dapagliflozin. He is euvolemic, BP is 128/78 and sinus rate is 62/min. Which add-on has the strongest specific guideline fit?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Ivabradine (Why this does not fit)

    His resting sinus rate is below the qualifying threshold.

  2. B. Amlodipine solely to reduce HF mortality (Why this does not fit)

    It may treat hypertension but has not established this mortality role.

  3. C. Hydralazine plus isosorbide dinitrate (Best answer)

    Persistent NYHA III HFrEF despite optimal therapy matches the population-specific recommendation.

  4. D. Diltiazem (Why this does not fit)

    Negative inotropy can worsen HFrEF, and there is no rate-control need here.

Takeaway: The residual symptoms, existing treatment and heart rate resolve competing drug choices.

Case sources: [1] [23]

Case 26

A 60-year-old woman with EF 30% remains NYHA II despite all four tolerated foundations. She is stable and euvolemic, in sinus rhythm at 82/min. Higher metoprolol succinate doses repeatedly cause symptomatic hypotension. Which option fits this residual problem?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. Increase beta-blocker regardless of recurrent symptoms (Why this does not fit)

    Maximally tolerated dosing accounts for clinically significant hypotension.

  2. B. Use ivabradine only after she develops atrial fibrillation (Why this does not fit)

    Ivabradine requires sinus-node-driven rhythm for this indication.

  3. C. Replace the beta-blocker with verapamil (Why this does not fit)

    Verapamil is not an equivalent HFrEF outcome therapy and can worsen contraction.

  4. D. Consider ivabradine (Best answer)

    She has stable symptomatic HFrEF, EF at most 35% and sinus rate at least 70 despite maximally tolerated beta-blockade.

Takeaway: A qualifying sinus rate matters after beta-blocker tolerability is established.

Case sources: [1]

Case 27

A 75-year-old man with HFrEF has persistent symptoms despite tolerated foundational therapy. Digoxin is being considered, with kidney function and interactions reviewed. Which expectation is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. Hospitalization benefit that removes the need for renal dose assessment, interaction review or toxicity monitoring (Why this does not fit)

    A potential benefit does not remove toxicity concerns; renal impairment increases digoxin exposure and requires dosing and monitoring attention.

  2. B. A demonstrated reduction in all-cause mortality without fewer HF admissions (Why this does not fit)

    The DIG result was the reverse endpoint pattern: fewer HF admissions without an established overall mortality benefit.

  3. C. Possible reduction in HF hospitalization without established overall survival benefit (Best answer)

    This supports a selected adjunctive role while requiring careful dosing and monitoring.

  4. D. A proven overall mortality reduction comparable to the four foundations (Why this does not fit)

    The DIG trial did not establish overall mortality reduction.

Takeaway: A hospitalization benefit is distinct from a survival or device effect.

Case sources: [1] [24]

Case 28

A 67-year-old woman with stable EF 33% remains hypertensive despite maximally tolerated HF therapy. Her pulse is 60/min and she has no congestion. Which calcium-channel blocker can be considered for the separate blood-pressure indication?

Show answer and explanations for case 28
  1. A. Verapamil because negative inotropy treats HFrEF (Why this does not fit)

    Reduced contractile force can be harmful in HFrEF.

  2. B. Diltiazem because all calcium-channel blockers are equally safe at low EF in every patient (Why this does not fit)

    Non-dihydropyridines differ from amlodipine in their cardiac effects.

  3. C. Nifedipine as a replacement for all foundational HF drugs (Why this does not fit)

    A vasodilator for pressure does not reproduce the foundations' outcome evidence.

  4. D. Amlodipine, recognizing that it is not an HF mortality-reducing foundation (Best answer)

    It can address residual hypertension without being presented as a disease-modifying substitute.

Takeaway: Treat a comorbidity without confusing its drug with foundational HF therapy.

Case sources: [1]

Case 29

A 58-year-old man with nonischemic cardiomyopathy has EF 28% and NYHA II symptoms after five months of optimized therapy. He is in sinus rhythm at 68/min with normal AV conduction; QRS is 102 ms, and expected meaningful survival exceeds one year. He has never had sustained ventricular tachycardia. Which device assessment is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 29
  1. A. CRT solely because EF is below 35% (Why this does not fit)

    His narrow QRS lacks the usual electrical indication for CRT.

  2. B. Defer all device discussion until a cardiac arrest occurs (Why this does not fit)

    Primary prevention is intended for selected patients before an arrest.

  3. C. Primary-prevention ICD assessment (Best answer)

    Persistent low EF with symptoms despite adequate therapy fits a common primary-prevention indication.

  4. D. Permanent pacing solely because sinus rate is 68/min (Why this does not fit)

    That rate without conduction disease is not a pacing indication.

Takeaway: Persistent risk after optimized therapy can justify ICD consideration before an arrhythmic event.

Case sources: [1]

Case 30

A 64-year-old woman is ten days after an anterior MI treated with PCI. EF is 29%, she is stable on newly started therapy, and no sustained ventricular arrhythmia has occurred. What is the best primary-prevention ICD approach?

Show answer and explanations for case 30
  1. A. Optimize therapy and reassess after the relevant post-MI and post-revascularization intervals (Best answer)

    Recovery and treatment response must be considered; routine implantation is not indicated at day ten.

  2. B. Decide from the acute EF alone that no reassessment is needed after recovery, revascularization or optimized medical therapy (Why this does not fit)

    Both recovery and persistent dysfunction are possible; later EF, symptoms and treatment response determine eligibility.

  3. C. Implant CRT now despite a QRS of 98 ms (Why this does not fit)

    Neither the electrical pattern nor the early timeline supports routine CRT.

  4. D. Implant now solely because the discharge EF is below 35% (Why this does not fit)

    Early post-MI EF does not bypass waiting and reassessment requirements.

Takeaway: Distinguish a low early EF from persistent primary-prevention eligibility.

Case sources: [1] [32]

Case 32

A 48-year-old woman with HFrEF has four admissions in six months despite specialist-adjusted therapy. Persistent low pressure limits dosing, kidney function is worsening and ordinary activities remain severely limited. What should happen next?

Show answer and explanations for case 32
  1. A. Prescribe chronic inotropes automatically from the NYHA label alone (Why this does not fit)

    Inotropes require an individualized bridge or palliative indication and carry risks.

  2. B. Arrange advanced-HF evaluation for eligible mechanical support or transplantation and integrate goals-based symptom care (Best answer)

    Repeated admissions and end-organ decline warrant timely assessment of both advanced and palliative options.

  3. C. Wait for EF to fall below 10% before referring (Why this does not fit)

    The current trajectory already signals advanced disease.

  4. D. Offer only another loop dose without discussing goals or advanced options (Why this does not fit)

    Congestion treatment alone does not address recurrent deterioration and treatment intolerance.

Takeaway: Clinical trajectory can make referral urgent before an arbitrary EF threshold.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 33

A 72-year-old man taking chronic carvedilol is admitted with edema and orthopnea. BP is 124/76, pulse 78, extremities are warm and mentation is normal. He improves after IV furosemide. What is the best beta-blocker approach?

Show answer and explanations for case 33
  1. A. Double it immediately before congestion is relieved (Why this does not fit)

    Initiation or upward titration is generally deferred until compensated.

  2. B. Stop it solely because an IV diuretic was required during hospitalization, even with preserved perfusion and stable blood pressure (Why this does not fit)

    Hospitalization or loop route alone is not a contraindication.

  3. C. Continue the established dose unless a specific contraindication develops (Best answer)

    Congestion with adequate perfusion does not automatically require withdrawal of preexisting therapy.

  4. D. Replace it with dobutamine despite adequate perfusion (Why this does not fit)

    There is no shock or low-output indication for routine inotropic support here.

Takeaway: Continuation during stable decongestion differs from initiation during instability.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 34

A 63-year-old woman with new severe LV dysfunction has BP 78/50, cold extremities, confusion and rising lactate. Lung ultrasound shows diffuse congestion. Which immediate plan is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 34
  1. A. Activate critical-care shock management, identify the cause and provide tailored circulatory support (Best answer)

    Hypotension with organ hypoperfusion requires stabilization and assessment for vasoactive or mechanical support.

  2. B. Use outpatient oral titration with follow-up next month (Why this does not fit)

    The hypoperfusion markers indicate an emergency requiring monitored care.

  3. C. Give a large fluid load without assessing filling pressure (Why this does not fit)

    She is already congested; indiscriminate fluid can worsen pulmonary edema.

  4. D. Start high-dose carvedilol to suppress sympathetic activity now (Why this does not fit)

    Acute negative inotropy can worsen shock; long-term benefit does not make initiation safe now.

Takeaway: Shock physiology takes priority over initiating a chronic medication schedule.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 35

A 70-year-old woman develops abrupt severe dyspnea with BP 218/116, oxygen saturation 82%, diffuse crackles and marked respiratory distress. She is alert and has no contraindication to nitrates or noninvasive ventilation. Which initial strategy best matches her physiology?

Show answer and explanations for case 35
  1. A. Large saline boluses to increase preload (Why this does not fit)

    Hypertensive pulmonary edema involves excessive filling pressure and afterload, not demonstrated underfilling.

  2. B. Support oxygenation with noninvasive ventilation, reduce pressure with IV nitrates and assess the need for IV diuresis (Best answer)

    This addresses respiratory failure and severe hemodynamic congestion while treating the trigger.

  3. C. Wait for an outpatient EF measurement before treating (Why this does not fit)

    Immediate respiratory and circulatory support cannot await outpatient classification.

  4. D. Routine dobutamine despite severe hypertension and preserved peripheral perfusion (Why this does not fit)

    Inotropes are not the initial solution to this afterload-dominant presentation.

Takeaway: Treat acute oxygenation and afterload problems before relying on an EF category.

Case sources: [1]

Case 36

A 59-year-old man with inferior ST elevation has BP 82/54, JVD and clear lungs. Right-sided lead V4R also shows ST elevation. While arranging immediate reperfusion, which approach is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 36
  1. A. Give repeated large fluid loads regardless of response (Why this does not fit)

    RV overdistention can also impair output; any volume trial requires reassessment.

  2. B. Avoid nitrates and consider cautious volume support if assessment shows inadequate filling (Best answer)

    Support RV preload judiciously while prioritizing reperfusion, with ongoing hemodynamic assessment.

  3. C. Give sublingual nitroglycerin despite hypotension (Why this does not fit)

    Further preload and pressure reduction can worsen RV infarct shock.

  4. D. Treat this as isolated LV pulmonary edema with aggressive diuresis despite clear lungs, hypotension and evidence of RV infarction (Why this does not fit)

    The clear lungs and right-sided ECG support RV involvement, and no pulmonary overload is described.

Takeaway: RV infarct shock requires a preload-aware plan, not automatic nitrate use.

Case sources: [22]

Case 37

A 65-year-old man with prior pericardial disease has ascites, edema and a JVP that rises with inspiration. Echo shows septal shift with respiration and marked ventricular interdependence, with no pericardial fluid collection or chamber collapse. Which diagnosis best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 37
  1. A. Pure left-sided systolic failure established by JVD alone (Why this does not fit)

    JVD does not establish LV systolic dysfunction, and the respiratory findings favor constriction.

  2. B. Isolated uncomplicated cardiac tamponade (Why this does not fit)

    The imaging shows no effusion or chamber collapse and instead demonstrates respiratory ventricular interdependence. Kussmaul sign is not typical of isolated tamponade. Small rapidly accumulating effusions can cause tamponade, so size alone would not exclude it.

  3. C. Constrictive pericarditis (Best answer)

    Systemic congestion, Kussmaul sign and respiratory ventricular interdependence support pericardial constriction.

  4. D. Isolated dependent venous edema (Why this does not fit)

    That would not account for the raised central venous pressure and cardiac imaging findings.

Takeaway: Interpret Kussmaul sign with respiratory imaging rather than as a generic HF sign.

Case sources: [18] [30]

Case 38

A 54-year-old woman with a known pericardial effusion becomes hypotensive with JVD and a marked inspiratory fall in systolic pressure. Echo shows a large effusion, right atrial systolic collapse and right ventricular diastolic collapse. What is the priority?

Show answer and explanations for case 38
  1. A. Urgent pericardial drainage in a monitored specialist setting (Best answer)

    Hemodynamic compromise with chamber collapse indicates tamponade requiring relief of the obstruction.

  2. B. Schedule routine surveillance imaging in six months (Why this does not fit)

    The current unstable physiology requires urgent treatment.

  3. C. Start four foundational HFrEF drugs before addressing the effusion (Why this does not fit)

    The immediate problem is mechanical filling limitation, not established chronic HFrEF.

  4. D. High-dose loop diuresis as definitive treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Reducing preload does not relieve the external constraint and may worsen hypotension.

Takeaway: Tamponade needs relief of the pericardial constraint.

Case sources: [18] [30]

Case 39

A 78-year-old man with HF symptoms has thick ventricular walls, low ECG voltage and bilateral carpal tunnel surgery in his history. Which initial laboratory evaluation is needed before using a bone-tracer scan as a nonbiopsy ATTR diagnostic pathway?

Show answer and explanations for case 39
  1. A. Troponin alone to distinguish AL from ATTR (Why this does not fit)

    Troponin can indicate injury but does not identify the precursor protein.

  2. B. Serum free light chains plus serum and urine immunofixation (Best answer)

    This assesses a monoclonal protein process that must be considered before interpreting an ATTR scan pathway.

  3. C. An assumption of ATTR based only on low voltage and ventricular wall thickening without testing for monoclonal protein (Why this does not fit)

    The phenotype is suggestive, not definitive, and AL disease requires timely recognition.

  4. D. Serum protein electrophoresis alone (Why this does not fit)

    Electrophoresis without immunofixation and assessment of free immunoglobulin light chains can miss a monoclonal process.

Takeaway: Do not let a suggestive phenotype bypass amyloid typing.

Case sources: [15]

Case 40

A 29-year-old woman has exertional presyncope and a family history of unexplained sudden death. Echo shows asymmetric septal hypertrophy, systolic anterior mitral motion and a dynamic LV outflow gradient. Which interpretation is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 40
  1. A. Generic hypertensive HFpEF, regardless of pressure history (Why this does not fit)

    The asymmetric anatomy, dynamic obstruction and family history require HCM assessment.

  2. B. Obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy requiring specialized evaluation and family risk assessment (Best answer)

    The anatomy and dynamic physiology support HCM; risk and activity guidance must be individualized.

  3. C. Fixed valvular aortic stenosis established by any systolic gradient (Why this does not fit)

    The gradient is dynamic and associated with mitral-septal interaction rather than a described stenotic aortic valve.

  4. D. Dilated cardiomyopathy because exertional symptoms imply a large LV (Why this does not fit)

    The chamber anatomy described is hypertrophic and obstructive, not dilated.

Takeaway: Locate the obstruction and interpret its dynamic behavior.

Case sources: [16]

Case 41

A 67-year-old woman develops acute chest pain after a major emotional stressor. ECG and troponin abnormalities prompt urgent coronary evaluation. Imaging shows apical and midventricular dysfunction extending beyond one coronary territory, and no culprit lesion explains it. What diagnosis should be evaluated alongside exclusion of myocarditis?

Show answer and explanations for case 41
  1. A. Anxiety without cardiac injury (Why this does not fit)

    Objective myocardial injury and ventricular dysfunction require cardiac evaluation.

  2. B. A single-territory completed infarction as the only possibility (Why this does not fit)

    The distribution and angiographic findings do not fit a single culprit explanation, although ACS was appropriately evaluated.

  3. C. Chronic hypertensive remodeling as the full explanation (Why this does not fit)

    Abrupt symptoms and new regional dysfunction need an acute explanation.

  4. D. Takotsubo syndrome (Best answer)

    The regional pattern and lack of an explanatory culprit lesion support this possibility, with follow-up recovery helping confirm it.

Takeaway: A stress trigger suggests Takotsubo but never replaces acute coronary evaluation.

Case sources: [17]

Case 42

A 32-year-old woman with postpartum cardiomyopathy is breastfeeding a healthy term infant. Renal function and potassium permit ACE-inhibitor treatment. Which statement about enalapril is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 42
  1. A. It must be avoided during breastfeeding solely because ACE inhibitors are fetotoxic in pregnancy in every patient (Why this does not fit)

    Placental exposure and milk exposure are different settings.

  2. B. Captopril is the only ACE inhibitor with lactation evidence (Why this does not fit)

    Enalapril also has measured milk and infant exposure data.

  3. C. Milk exposure is very low, and required enalapril is not by itself a reason to stop breastfeeding (Best answer)

    LactMed supports use when needed, with drug-specific maternal and infant assessment.

  4. D. All HF drugs are automatically equally safe in lactation (Why this does not fit)

    Compatibility must be assessed for each drug rather than extrapolated to the entire regimen.

Takeaway: Assess lactation evidence separately from fetal toxicity.

Case sources: [14]

Case 43

A 77-year-old man taking diltiazem for hypertension develops presyncope. ECG shows sinus P waves at a stable rate, constant PR intervals on conducted complexes and intermittent single nonconducted P waves, with a wide QRS. It is not a 2:1 pattern. What is the best response?

Show answer and explanations for case 43
  1. A. Assume stopping diltiazem guarantees permanent resolution without follow-up (Why this does not fit)

    The drug may contribute, but underlying conduction disease cannot be excluded by that assumption.

  2. B. Diagnose atrial fibrillation and increase diltiazem (Why this does not fit)

    Organized sinus P waves and measurable constant PR intervals contradict AF; more AV suppression may worsen the problem.

  3. C. Call it Wenckebach despite no progressive PR change (Why this does not fit)

    The fixed conducted PR intervals support Mobitz II rather than the usual Wenckebach pattern.

  4. D. Urgently assess Mobitz II, withhold AV-slowing medication and evaluate reversible causes and pacing need (Best answer)

    Symptomatic conduction disease needs monitored evaluation; persistent acquired Mobitz II without a reversible cause warrants pacing.

Takeaway: Describe the atrial and PR pattern before naming AV block.

Case sources: [25]

Case 44

A 68-year-old man with HFrEF develops a cough after an ACE inhibitor is started, but also reports blood-streaked sputum and unintentional weight loss. He has no edema or orthopnea. Which approach is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 44
  1. A. Attribute all symptoms to an ACE-inhibitor cough without investigation (Why this does not fit)

    Medication-associated dry cough does not adequately explain these red flags.

  2. B. Assess the red-flag pulmonary symptoms diagnostically while reviewing whether the ACE inhibitor contributes to cough (Best answer)

    The timing supports a possible drug contribution, but hemoptysis and weight loss require additional workup.

  3. C. Order only an asymptomatic lung-screening study (Why this does not fit)

    A symptomatic presentation requires diagnostic evaluation rather than substitution of a screening pathway.

  4. D. Treat empirically with more diuretic solely because he has a history of HF (Why this does not fit)

    The stem lacks new congestion and contains findings needing a separate explanation.

Takeaway: A plausible medication effect must account for the whole presentation.

Case sources: [1] [10] [29]

Case 45

A 69-year-old man is hospitalized with acute decompensated HF, orthopnea and edema. Blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg and he is receiving IV loop diuresis. A team member proposes adding nesiritide routinely to improve outcomes. Which ASCEND-HF finding best informs this decision?

Show answer and explanations for case 45
  1. A. Lower 30-day death or HF rehospitalization without more hypotension (Why this does not fit)

    The trial did not demonstrate a significant reduction in that composite and hypotension occurred more often with nesiritide.

  2. B. More worsening renal function with unchanged hypotension risk (Why this does not fit)

    The worsening-renal-function endpoint was not significantly different; hypotension was more frequent.

  3. C. Less dyspnea meeting the prespecified significance threshold and lower mortality (Why this does not fit)

    The dyspnea differences did not meet the prespecified threshold and mortality was not significantly reduced.

  4. D. No significant reduction in death or HF rehospitalization, with more hypotension (Best answer)

    This does not support routine addition. The trial also found no significant difference in its worsening-renal-function endpoint.

Takeaway: Keep the negative clinical result separate from overstated renal-harm claims.

Case sources: [21]

Case 46

A 73-year-old woman with previously stable HF gains 3 kg and develops edema after starting daily ibuprofen for knee pain. She reports taking her HF medicines as prescribed, and no infection or new ischemic finding is identified. What is the most useful medication conclusion?

Show answer and explanations for case 46
  1. A. Assume concealed nonadherence because NSAIDs cannot affect volume (Why this does not fit)

    Her reported adherence and the timing warrant assessment of the new exposure.

  2. B. Continue ibuprofen unchanged and compensate only by increasing the loop dose (Why this does not fit)

    Treating congestion may be necessary, but leaving the aggravating renal and sodium-retaining exposure unaddressed can undermine control.

  3. C. Ibuprofen can promote sodium retention and impair renal function, contributing to congestion (Best answer)

    The exposure plausibly explains worsening volume control and should be reviewed while treating congestion.

  4. D. Stop the SGLT2 inhibitor as the only likely cause of salt retention (Why this does not fit)

    The new NSAID is a more direct aggravating exposure in this sequence.

Takeaway: Ask what changed before labeling the patient nonadherent.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 47

A 76-year-old woman with established HFpEF, EF 60%, has persistent symptomatic atrial fibrillation at 118/min. BP is stable, she has no acute congestion and there is no significant conduction disease. Which statement best guides management?

Show answer and explanations for case 47
  1. A. Diltiazem is prohibited solely because any form of HF is present (Why this does not fit)

    The HFrEF negative-inotropy restriction cannot be applied identically to every stable HFpEF patient.

  2. B. Ivabradine is the preferred AF rate-control drug (Why this does not fit)

    It targets sinus-node rate and does not provide appropriate AF rate control.

  3. C. Treat the rate only if EF falls below 40% (Why this does not fit)

    AF can worsen filling and symptoms even when EF is preserved.

  4. D. Individualize rate or rhythm control and assess anticoagulation need; selected beta-blocker or diltiazem use may be appropriate (Best answer)

    Her preserved EF and stability allow phenotype-specific AF management while stroke risk requires separate attention.

Takeaway: Manage AF as a contributor to HFpEF while assessing stroke prevention separately.

Case sources: [3] [27]

Case 48

A 51-year-old man with years of heavy alcohol consumption has new dilated LV dysfunction, EF 24%, and no established coronary evaluation. Which plan best addresses cause and treatment?

Show answer and explanations for case 48
  1. A. Diagnose alcohol-related cardiomyopathy conclusively and omit evaluation of other causes (Why this does not fit)

    The exposure is relevant but does not exclude ischemic or additional disease.

  2. B. Support alcohol cessation with appropriate withdrawal assessment, evaluate other causes and begin tolerated HFrEF therapy (Best answer)

    This addresses a potentially reversible contributor without neglecting the current syndrome or alternative causes.

  3. C. Promise full recovery within a fixed interval after stopping alcohol (Why this does not fit)

    Recovery varies and cannot be guaranteed from the history alone.

  4. D. Delay all HF therapy until abstinence alone normalizes EF (Why this does not fit)

    Appropriate treatment should proceed while the contributor is addressed.

Takeaway: Treat the exposure and the HF syndrome while testing the causal explanation.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Search Bone Wizardry

Quick links