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Cardiology

Heart murmurs. Timing, pressure and bedside decisions

Identify heart murmurs by timing, location and physiology, distinguish valve disease from mimics, and practice evidence-based clinical decisions.

A faint murmur can accompany a dangerous valve lesion. A loud one can come from a small septal defect. First locate the sound in the cardiac cycle, then ask what pressure difference could produce it. Loudness alone cannot answer how sick the valve is.

Place the sound between the valves closing

Find S1 and S2 before naming the murmur. S1 marks mitral and tricuspid closure at the start of ventricular systole. S2 marks aortic and pulmonic closure at its end. A palpable carotid upstroke helps locate systole when the rhythm is difficult to follow. A murmur is sustained sound from disturbed flow, unlike an isolated click, snap or extra heart sound. [2]

Two phases, opposite valve jobs

S1 → S2

Ventricular systole

Exit valves open during ejection, after isovolumic contraction. Aortic or pulmonic stenosis obstructs forward ejection.

Filling valves closed. Mitral or tricuspid regurgitation permits backward flow.

S2 → next S1

Ventricular diastole

Filling valves open after isovolumic relaxation. Mitral or tricuspid stenosis obstructs filling.

Exit valves closed. Aortic or pulmonic regurgitation permits backward flow.

This valve map describes ejection and filling. All valves are closed during the intervening isovolumic phases. It does not include every cause of a murmur. Septal defects and increased flow through normal valves also produce sound. [13]

An ejection murmur builds and fades as ventricular outflow accelerates and decelerates. A holosystolic murmur occupies the interval from S1 to S2 because a pressure difference persists across an incompetent AV valve or a ventricular septal defect. Aortic regurgitation starts after S2 and fades as aortic and ventricular pressures approach one another. A continuous murmur crosses S2 without a silent gap because its driving pressure persists into diastole. [2] [3]

Systolic does not mean stenosis. Diastolic does not mean regurgitation. Name the valve and the phase together.

Describe timing, contour, pitch, loudest location, radiation and response to maneuvers. Record intensity on the six-grade systolic scale. Grade 1 is barely audible, 2 is soft but readily heard and 3 is moderately loud without a thrill. Grade 4 adds a palpable thrill. Grade 5 remains audible with only the stethoscope edge touching; grade 6 can be heard with it just off the chest. These descriptors localize a problem; Doppler echocardiography establishes its anatomy and hemodynamic importance. New symptoms, syncope or a diastolic murmur warrant investigation even when the sound is soft. [1] [2]

Try it here · Checkpoint 1 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 9

A 7-year-old boy is evaluated after a murmur is heard at a sports examination. He has normal growth, oxygen saturation of 99% and no exercise symptoms. A harsh grade 4/6 holosystolic lower parasternal murmur has a thrill. Echo shows a 3-mm restrictive VSD with no chamber enlargement. Why is a small defect so loud?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. A large LV-to-RV pressure difference creates a high-velocity jet (Best answer)

    A restrictive opening maintains the ventricular pressure difference, which can produce a loud jet despite a small shunt.

  2. B. High pulmonary vascular resistance increases RV pressure toward LV pressure (Why this does not fit)

    Rising RV pressure reduces the pressure difference across a VSD and can soften its murmur; loudness does not prove pulmonary hypertension.

  3. C. A large shunt volume produces marked pulmonary overcirculation (Why this does not fit)

    The normal chamber sizes and restrictive defect do not indicate a large shunt. Jet velocity can be high even when shunt volume is small.

  4. D. A low-resistance opening permits near-equal ventricular pressures (Why this does not fit)

    That describes a nonrestrictive defect. This small restrictive opening maintains a substantial systolic pressure difference.

Takeaway: A loud VSD may be small and restrictive; quantify the shunt and chamber response.

Case sources: [2]

Listen where the sound travels

Auscultation sites are listening windows, not the anatomical coordinates of the valves. Begin with the diaphragm, compare all four windows, then use the bell lightly for low-frequency sounds. Pressing the bell firmly filters out the rumble you are trying to hear.

Right second interspace

The aortic window. A harsh ejection murmur transmitted to the neck suggests aortic stenosis. Check carotid amplitude and timing, not just radiation.

Left second interspace

The pulmonic window. Pulmonic stenosis produces an ejection murmur here. A flow murmur with a wide, fixed split S2 suggests an atrial septal defect.

Lower left sternal border

Compare tricuspid regurgitation, tricuspid stenosis and VSD. Inspiration accentuates many right-sided murmurs, especially TR.

Cardiac apex

MR often transmits toward the axilla. Left lateral positioning brings the apex closer to the chest wall and helps expose the low rumble of MS.

For suspected AR, listen along the left sternal border with the patient leaning forward at end-expiration. Aortic root disease can make AR more prominent along the right sternal border. Anatomy and jet direction vary, so an atypical location is a reason to image, not a reason to discard a coherent clinical picture. [2] [3]

S2 adds a second layer of information. A soft A2 or delayed aortic closure can accompany severe AS. Fixed splitting suggests persistent right ventricular volume loading from ASD; its systolic sound is increased pulmonic flow, not flow across the atrial opening. S3 can reflect volume loading and S4 reduced compliance, but neither identifies a particular valve lesion alone. [2]

Separate the systolic patterns

Aortic stenosis versus dynamic outflow obstruction

AS narrows the valve opening. Calcific degeneration and bicuspid valve disease are common settings. Its crescendo-decrescendo sound is usually strongest at the right upper sternal border and often transmits to the carotids. A delayed, low-amplitude upstroke is pulsus parvus et tardus. Exertional dyspnea, angina and syncope are warning symptoms, not a required sequence. Late peaking can suggest advanced obstruction, but low output may make a severe lesion quiet. [8]

Obstructive HCM narrows the outflow tract during contraction. Septal and mitral apparatus anatomy allow systolic anterior motion, or SAM, of the mitral leaflet toward the septum. The typical ejection murmur is left parasternal. A smaller ventricular cavity usually increases obstruction. Carotid radiation favors AS, but location alone is insufficient. Echo distinguishes a fixed valve lesion from a dynamic gradient. HCM can exist without obstruction or an audible murmur. [4]

Mitral regurgitation versus mitral valve prolapse

MR classically produces a blowing holosystolic apical murmur with axillary radiation. Primary MR arises from the valve apparatus, including degenerative leaflet disease, rheumatic damage or chordal rupture. Secondary MR arises when ventricular or atrial remodeling prevents otherwise relatively intact leaflets from coapting. Their treatments differ because the source of the leak differs. [7]

MVP often announces itself with a midsystolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click marks abrupt tension as prolapsing tissue and chordae become taut. A reduced LV volume makes prolapse occur earlier, lengthening the murmur. With substantial MR, a prolapsing valve can produce holosystolic sound. Do not require the classic click in every case. [2]

Tricuspid regurgitation versus VSD

Both can sound holosystolic at the lower left sternal border. An inspiratory increase, large jugular systolic waves and a pulsatile liver favor TR. Secondary TR may reflect RV dilation from pressure loading or right atrial and annular dilation associated with atrial fibrillation. AF does not automatically mean pulmonary hypertension. Endocarditis and carcinoid disease instead damage the leaflets themselves. [7]

A restrictive VSD can be strikingly loud because the LV-to-RV pressure difference drives a high-velocity jet through a small opening. A large defect with severe pulmonary vascular disease can become quieter as ventricular pressures approach one another. The volume of the sound cannot substitute for shunt assessment. [2]

Soft ejection murmurs can also accompany anemia, fever or pregnancy. Pulmonic stenosis is an obstructive lesion, usually congenital, rather than an innocent flow state. A click, abnormal S2, thrill, symptoms or abnormal pulses should prevent reflex reassurance. [2]

Diastolic and continuous sounds need their own map

Aortic regurgitation

Blood returns from the aorta into the LV after aortic closure, producing an early diastolic decrescendo. Chronic significant AR may widen pulse pressure because increased total stroke volume raises systolic pressure while diastolic runoff lowers diastolic pressure. A bounding, collapsing pulse fits that mechanism. Wide pulse pressure also occurs with arterial stiffness and high-output states. No pulse-pressure cutoff diagnoses AR or establishes its severity. [3] [8]

Leaflet injury from endocarditis and dilation of the aortic root are different routes to failed closure. Bicuspid valve disease, heritable aortopathy and, less commonly, syphilitic aortitis belong in the cause list. An Austin Flint rumble is apical diastolic sound in severe AR that can imitate MS without rheumatic commissural fusion. Look for the accompanying AR and confirm the mitral anatomy on echo. [3] [5]

Mitral and tricuspid stenosis

MS restricts atrial emptying during diastole, raising left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures. Listen for a low apical rumble and, with sufficiently mobile leaflets, an opening snap. Higher LA pressure can open the valve sooner after A2, shortening the A2-to-snap interval. The snap is abrupt opening tension, not valve closure. Heavily calcified valves may lack a snap. Presystolic accentuation depends on atrial contraction and disappears in AF. [3]

Rheumatic commissural fusion remains a major worldwide cause. Rheumatic damage can cause both stenosis and regurgitation. An apical diastolic rumble plus a new apical holosystolic sound warrants imaging of both opening and coaptation; chronic scarring can impair closure, while new symptoms also require assessment for other causes of MR. Older adults can have degenerative MS from mitral annular calcification, which does not offer fused commissures for a balloon to separate. TS produces a similar filling rumble lower along the left sternal border, often accentuated by inspiration. [7]

Pulmonic regurgitation and PDA

PR is an early diastolic sound in the pulmonic region. In pulmonary hypertension, the high-pressure regurgitant sound is called a Graham Steell murmur. An inspiratory increase and other evidence of right-sided pressure loading help distinguish it from AR. [3]

A PDA connects the aorta and pulmonary artery. When aortic pressure exceeds pulmonary pressure through both phases, the murmur continues across S2, often near the left infraclavicular region. Prematurity is a familiar setting, but sound alone does not establish a need for closure. Echo and clinical effects determine hemodynamic significance. For preterm infants, the 2025 AAP report advises against prophylactic or early medical closure before 2 weeks of age.

Beyond 2 weeks, a hemodynamically significant PDA requires individualized assessment of observation, medication or procedural closure because comparative benefits remain uncertain. This preterm guidance does not define treatment for every term infant or older child. [10]

Try it here · Checkpoint 2 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 16

A 61-year-old man has 9 months of exertional dyspnea, blood pressure 168/48 mmHg and a left parasternal early diastolic murmur. A low apical diastolic rumble is also heard. Echo shows severe AR, normal mitral leaflet opening and no commissural fusion. What is the apical sound?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. Rheumatic mitral stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    The mitral anatomy and opening are normal; the accompanying severe AR provides another mechanism for a rumble.

  2. B. Tricuspid stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    Its rumble would be lower parasternal and linked to right-sided filling.

  3. C. Mitral valve prolapse (Why this does not fit)

    MVP produces systolic rather than diastolic sounds.

  4. D. Austin Flint murmur (Best answer)

    Severe AR can disturb mitral inflow and create an apical rumble that resembles MS without anatomical mitral stenosis.

Takeaway: A diastolic apical rumble does not prove anatomical MS when severe AR is present.

Case sources: [3]

Change the filling, then predict the result

Two ways a smaller LV changes systolic sound

Obstructive HCM

Standing or Valsalva strain → less venous return → smaller cavity → greater dynamic obstruction → usually louder ejection murmur.

Mitral valve prolapse

Standing or Valsalva strain → smaller cavity → prolapse begins earlier → click nearer S1 and a longer late systolic murmur.

Both respond to reduced LV volume. The click and murmur contour separate them. A maneuver alone cannot choose the diagnosis.

  • Squatting increases venous return and systemic resistance. AS commonly becomes louder; obstructive HCM becomes softer; MVP prolapse begins later.
  • Passive leg raising increases venous return without reproducing every afterload effect of squatting. It commonly reduces dynamic HCM obstruction.
  • Sustained handgrip primarily raises systemic vascular resistance. MR and AR often intensify, and many VSD murmurs do too. HCM obstruction usually decreases. It is not simply another preload maneuver.
  • Inspiration increases right-sided venous return. An increase in TR is useful, though severe RV failure can blunt the response.
  • Valsalva strain reduces filling. Release restores return, so always specify the phase when interpreting a reported response.

Maneuvers are physiologic experiments with variable responses, not infallible diagnostic rules. Avoid using them to provoke symptoms in an unstable patient. Amyl nitrite is historical examination material rather than a required bedside test. Phenylephrine can support pressure in selected monitored patients with dynamic obstruction because it increases vascular resistance without direct beta-agonist stimulation. That is a treatment decision, not a home auscultation maneuver. [2] [4]

Turn the sound into a clinical decision

New murmur with shock, pulmonary edema, chest pain or suspected infection needs urgent assessment and echocardiography. Acute severe MR or AR can have a short, soft murmur because pressures equalize rapidly. Chronic bounding pulses and chamber dilation may be absent.

After an MI, acute MR from papillary muscle rupture and a new VSD are competing mechanical complications. Echo identifies the failed structure. Abrupt chest or back pain with new AR raises concern for proximal aortic dissection. A prosthetic mitral valve with newly impaired opening can cause diastolic obstruction from thrombosis or pannus; paravalvular mitral regurgitation is systolic. TTE, TEE and, when needed, CT or fluoroscopy resolve the mechanism. Afebrile presentation or negative cultures alone does not exclude endocarditis. [1] [5] [9]

Symptoms plus confirmed severe AS → valve-team evaluation for replacement. High-gradient severe AS generally has peak velocity at least 4 m/s or mean gradient at least 40 mmHg, with valve area usually 1.0 cm² or less. A low mean gradient with a small valve area needs flow assessment, measurement review and often stress echo or CT calcium assessment.

Severe primary MR → use symptoms, LV response and repair feasibility. Under ACC/AHA criteria, LVEF 60% or less or LV end-systolic diameter at least 40 mm indicates LV dysfunction even without symptoms. An EF of 58% is not reassuring in severe MR.

Severe secondary MR → optimize heart-failure therapy and resynchronization when indicated, then assess persistent symptoms and suitability for intervention.

Symptomatic severe rheumatic MS, usually valve area at most 1.5 cm² → consider balloon commissurotomy with suitable anatomy, less than moderate MR and no left atrial thrombus. Calcific MS and unfavorable anatomy need a different valve-team strategy.

These are US guideline anchors, not a complete intervention algorithm. The 2025 ESC/EACTS update further emphasizes integrated imaging, individualized timing and Heart Team decisions. TAVR versus surgery depends on anatomy, age, expected longevity, other surgical needs and patient preferences, not age alone. [1] [6] [7] [8]

For stable asymptomatic isolated AS or MR with normal LV function, ACC/AHA echo intervals are generally 3 to 5 years for mild disease, 1 to 2 years for moderate disease and 6 to 12 months for severe disease. New symptoms, mixed disease or ventricular changes shorten that schedule. No medicine has been established to reverse calcific AS. Sports advice requires assessment of lesion severity and exercise response. [1] [11]

With Marfan aortic dilation, maximally tolerated beta blocker or ARB therapy is recommended; combination therapy can be reasonable. Root surgery is generally recommended at 5.0 cm and can be appropriate at 4.5 cm with high-risk features. Body size, growth, family history and pregnancy plans can change the decision. A mandatory drug addition based on one diameter is not an adequate plan. [5] [12]

For each case, decide in this order. Is the patient unstable? When is the sound? What structure and pressure difference explain it? What test or treatment changes the outcome?

Try it here · Checkpoint 3 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 23

A 66-year-old man with isolated mild AS is asymptomatic and has no interval change in exercise capacity. Echo shows peak aortic velocity 2.5 m/s, normal LV size and normal EF. What routine echo interval is generally appropriate under ACC/AHA guidance if he remains stable?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Every 3 months (Why this does not fit)

    This intensity is not routinely needed for stable isolated mild AS.

  2. B. Every year even if symptoms and LV function remain unchanged (Why this does not fit)

    Annual imaging may be appropriate with progression or additional disease, but it is more frequent than the routine interval for stable isolated mild AS.

  3. C. Every 3 to 5 years, with earlier reassessment for new symptoms (Best answer)

    This is the general interval for stable mild AS with normal LV function; a clinical change overrides the schedule.

  4. D. Every 6 to 12 months (Why this does not fit)

    This is the usual range for severe AS with preserved LV function, rather than stable mild disease.

Takeaway: Surveillance follows severity and clinical change, not the murmur label alone.

Case sources: [1]

Practice the bedside decisions

Case 1

A 76-year-old man reports 4 months of chest pressure and lightheadedness when walking uphill. He has no fever or resting pain. Examination shows a late-peaking systolic murmur at the right second interspace, neck radiation and a delayed carotid upstroke. Which lesion best explains the findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Aortic stenosis (Best answer)

    A narrowed aortic valve explains an ejection murmur, delayed arterial upstroke and symptoms when cardiac output must increase.

  2. B. Mitral regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    MR usually produces an apical holosystolic murmur and does not explain the delayed carotid upstroke.

  3. C. Obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    Dynamic obstruction can cause exertional symptoms, but the combined late-peaking aortic-area sound and delayed pulse favor valvular AS. Echo distinguishes them.

  4. D. Aortic regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    The characteristic regurgitant sound is after S2; chronic AR more often gives a bounding than a delayed low-amplitude pulse.

Takeaway: Combine timing, radiation and pulse contour before naming AS.

Case sources: [1] [2] [8]

Case 2

A 37-year-old woman with childhood rheumatic fever has 6 months of exertional dyspnea. She is afebrile, with a blowing murmur beginning at S1 and extending to S2 at the apex and left axilla. Which lesion is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. Mitral stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    Rheumatic history makes MS plausible, but MS obstructs diastolic filling and produces a rumble after S2.

  2. B. Mitral regurgitation (Best answer)

    The apical holosystolic pattern indicates systolic LV-to-LA leakage. Rheumatic disease can cause MR as well as MS.

  3. C. Tricuspid regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    TR is usually lower parasternal with an inspiratory increase; the apical-to-axillary pattern favors MR.

  4. D. Pulmonic stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    Pulmonic stenosis is an upper left parasternal ejection murmur, not an apical holosystolic sound.

Takeaway: A rheumatic history does not decide whether the lesion is stenotic or regurgitant.

Case sources: [2] [7]

Case 3

A 58-year-old man with bicuspid aortic valve reports increasing breathlessness while cycling over 8 months. Blood pressure is 164/54 mmHg. An early diastolic decrescendo is audible along the left sternal border at end-expiration. What most directly accounts for the low diastolic pressure?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Restricted LV filling across the mitral valve (Why this does not fit)

    Mitral obstruction raises LA pressure but does not drain the aorta during diastole.

  2. B. Fixed resistance to systolic aortic ejection (Why this does not fit)

    AS obstructs forward flow during systole; it does not explain backward diastolic runoff.

  3. C. Diastolic runoff from the aorta into the LV (Best answer)

    An incompetent aortic valve allows aortic blood to return during diastole, lowering aortic diastolic pressure.

  4. D. Reduced arterial compliance alone accelerates systolic pressure rise (Why this does not fit)

    Arterial stiffness can widen pulse pressure, but it does not explain the demonstrated diastolic valve leak and runoff responsible for this pattern.

Takeaway: Pulse pressure supports the AR mechanism but does not independently grade the lesion.

Case sources: [3] [8]

Case 4

A 43-year-old woman with rheumatic valve disease has 3 months of worsening dyspnea. In sinus rhythm she has a low apical diastolic rumble and an opening snap only 55 ms after A2. Which mechanism best explains the short interval?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. The mitral valve closes earlier because LV pressure is high (Why this does not fit)

    The sound is generated during opening, not closure. Mitral closure contributes to S1.

  2. B. Aortic valve opening is delayed (Why this does not fit)

    Aortic opening occurs during systole and cannot explain a snap just after A2.

  3. C. Loss of atrial contraction shortens diastole (Why this does not fit)

    She is in sinus rhythm; loss of atrial contraction would affect presystolic accentuation rather than explain the opening interval.

  4. D. High LA pressure exceeds falling LV pressure earlier (Best answer)

    The higher upstream pressure opens the mobile stenotic valve sooner after aortic closure, producing an earlier snap.

Takeaway: A short A2-to-opening-snap interval reflects higher LA pressure in suitable valve anatomy.

Case sources: [3]

Case 5

A 26-year-old woman has intermittent palpitations for 2 months without syncope. At the apex a midsystolic click is followed by a late systolic murmur. On standing, the click occurs nearer S1. What explains this change?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Reduced LV volume permits earlier prolapse (Best answer)

    A smaller cavity permits prolapsing mitral tissue to become taut earlier in systole, advancing the click.

  2. B. Increased venous return delays leaflet prolapse (Why this does not fit)

    Standing usually lowers venous return. More filling, as with squatting, tends to delay the click.

  3. C. Earlier opening of a stenotic mitral valve (Why this does not fit)

    A stenotic mitral opening snap is diastolic, unlike this systolic click.

  4. D. Greater flow across a calcified aortic valve (Why this does not fit)

    AS produces an ejection murmur and does not explain a mobile midsystolic apical click.

Takeaway: For MVP, focus on click timing and murmur duration, not loudness alone.

Case sources: [2]

Case 6

A 24-year-old male rower has exertional near-syncope for 3 weeks. Echo shows a 21-mm septum, mitral SAM and a normal aortic valve. A systolic left parasternal murmur becomes softer with squatting. Why?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Squatting reduces preload and widens the outflow tract (Why this does not fit)

    Lower preload would shrink the cavity and usually increase dynamic obstruction.

  2. B. Increased filling and resistance reduce dynamic obstruction (Best answer)

    Squatting increases venous return and systemic resistance, helping maintain a larger LV cavity during contraction.

  3. C. Increased contractility widens the dynamic outflow tract (Why this does not fit)

    Greater contractility generally intensifies SAM. The helpful squatting effects are increased filling and systemic resistance.

  4. D. Reduced systemic resistance lowers the obstructive gradient (Why this does not fit)

    Reduced afterload usually worsens dynamic obstruction. Squatting increases systemic resistance.

Takeaway: The same ejection contour can arise from fixed AS or dynamic HCM; anatomy and loading separate them.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 7

A 62-year-old woman with chronic MR reports 4 months of exertional fatigue. During examination her apical holosystolic murmur becomes more prominent with sustained handgrip. Which change best explains the response?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Decreased systemic vascular resistance (Why this does not fit)

    Lower systemic resistance usually favors forward ejection and may reduce MR.

  2. B. Increased pulmonary venous capacitance during inspiration (Why this does not fit)

    Handgrip is not an inspiratory maneuver; its useful effect here is systemic resistance.

  3. C. Increased resistance to forward LV ejection (Best answer)

    A higher afterload can increase regurgitant flow into the LA through an incompetent mitral valve.

  4. D. Earlier closure of the aortic valve from reduced venous return (Why this does not fit)

    This does not explain a louder sustained apical systolic leak during isometric exercise.

Takeaway: Handgrip is primarily an afterload test.

Case sources: [2]

Case 8

A 68-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension has 5 months of abdominal fullness and ankle swelling. He has large jugular systolic waves, a pulsatile liver and a lower left parasternal holosystolic murmur that intensifies with inspiration. Which lesion is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Mitral regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    MR can cause congestion but usually has an apical focus and does not explain prominent systemic venous systolic pulsation.

  2. B. Tricuspid stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    TS obstructs filling in diastole; the observed murmur occupies systole.

  3. C. Ventricular septal defect (Why this does not fit)

    VSD can be holosystolic at this location, but the inspiratory response and systemic venous systolic waves favor TR.

  4. D. Tricuspid regurgitation (Best answer)

    RV systolic backflow into the RA creates the venous waves and liver pulsation; increased inspiratory return often accentuates the murmur.

Takeaway: TR combines a systolic leak with evidence of systolic backflow into systemic veins.

Case sources: [2] [7]

Case 10

A 16-year-old girl reports 6 months of reduced endurance in soccer. She has an ejection click and crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the left second interspace, a parasternal lift and delayed P2. Echo shows doming pulmonary valve leaflets. Which diagnosis fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Aortic stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    The pulmonary valve morphology, upper left focus and delayed P2 localize the obstruction to the RV outlet.

  2. B. Pulmonic stenosis (Best answer)

    A narrowed pulmonary valve creates systolic RV outflow turbulence and can delay pulmonary valve closure.

  3. C. Mitral valve prolapse (Why this does not fit)

    MVP produces an apical systolic click related to prolapse rather than a pulmonary ejection pattern.

  4. D. Atrial septal defect without pulmonary valve disease (Why this does not fit)

    ASD can cause a pulmonary flow murmur, but it does not explain doming stenotic pulmonary leaflets.

Takeaway: Pulmonary valve morphology distinguishes true obstruction from increased pulmonary flow.

Case sources: [2]

Case 11

A 29-year-old woman has mild exertional breathlessness for a year. Oxygen saturation is 98%. A soft systolic ejection murmur is heard at the left upper sternal border with wide S2 splitting that remains fixed through respiration. Echo confirms a secundum ASD. Where does the murmur primarily arise?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Diastolic regurgitation across the aortic valve (Why this does not fit)

    That would occur after S2 and is unrelated to the right-sided volume loading shown here.

  2. B. High-velocity systolic flow through the atrial opening (Why this does not fit)

    The atrial pressure difference is usually too small to produce the principal audible systolic murmur.

  3. C. Increased systolic flow through the pulmonary outflow tract (Best answer)

    Left-to-right atrial shunting increases RV stroke volume and pulmonary outflow, generating a flow murmur.

  4. D. Mitral leaflet prolapse into the LA (Why this does not fit)

    No prolapse is described; the fixed S2 split reflects right-sided volume loading.

Takeaway: The ASD murmur is commonly a pulmonary flow murmur; S2 supplies the stronger bedside discriminator.

Case sources: [2]

Case 12

A 45-year-old woman with rheumatic heart disease has progressive abdominal swelling over 7 months. She has prominent jugular a waves and a low diastolic rumble at the lower left sternal border that increases with inspiration. Which lesion best explains the sound?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Tricuspid regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    TR creates systolic rather than diastolic turbulence and prominent systolic venous waves.

  2. B. Mitral stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    MS is generally apical and does not best explain the right-sided filling findings and inspiratory response.

  3. C. Pulmonic regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    PR is an early diastolic decrescendo at the upper pulmonary window rather than a lower filling rumble.

  4. D. Tricuspid stenosis (Best answer)

    Obstructed RA-to-RV diastolic flow explains the lower rumble, prominent atrial contraction waves and inspiratory increase.

Takeaway: Match phase and location before using the respiratory response.

Case sources: [3]

Case 13

A 54-year-old woman with severe pulmonary arterial hypertension has increasing dyspnea for 6 months. Blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg. Examination shows a loud P2, RV lift and an early diastolic decrescendo at the left upper sternal border that increases on inspiration. Which lesion is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Pulmonic regurgitation (Best answer)

    High pulmonary artery pressure drives diastolic backflow into the RV, producing the Graham Steell pattern.

  2. B. Aortic regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    AR is a reasonable diastolic alternative, but the marked pulmonary pressure findings and inspiratory accentuation favor PR.

  3. C. Mitral stenosis (Why this does not fit)

    MS causes an apical diastolic rumble, not a high-pressure pulmonic decrescendo.

  4. D. Tricuspid regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    TR occurs during systole; timing excludes it as the source of this sound.

Takeaway: A high-pressure PR murmur can resemble AR; inspect the pulmonary circulation context.

Case sources: [3]

Case 14

A 3-month-old girl born prematurely has poor weight gain and sweating during feeds for 6 weeks. Examination shows bounding pulses and a murmur below the left clavicle that continues through S2. Echo demonstrates flow from the descending aorta into the pulmonary artery. What explains the continuous timing?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Reversal of ductal flow with every valve closure (Why this does not fit)

    Continuity does not require alternating flow direction; the systemic-to-pulmonary pressure difference can persist.

  2. B. Aortic pressure exceeds pulmonary artery pressure in systole and diastole (Best answer)

    The persistent pressure difference maintains flow through the patent ductus across S2.

  3. C. Pulmonary pressure exceeds aortic pressure only during inspiration (Why this does not fit)

    A respiratory pressure change cannot explain uninterrupted flow from the aorta into the pulmonary artery through the cardiac cycle.

  4. D. Aortic pressure exceeds pulmonary pressure only during ventricular ejection (Why this does not fit)

    That would explain a systolic component but cannot sustain the observed diastolic component.

Takeaway: A continuous murmur reflects a pressure difference that persists across S2.

Case sources: [10]

Case 15

A 32-year-old woman has 2 months of fatigue and heavy menstrual bleeding. Hemoglobin is 7.8 g/dL. She has a soft midsystolic murmur, normal S2, normal pulses and no thrill. Echo shows normal valves and ventricular function. Which mechanism best explains the murmur?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Fixed aortic obstruction (Why this does not fit)

    Normal valve anatomy and absence of an obstructive Doppler pattern argue against AS.

  2. B. Systolic leakage through a perforated mitral leaflet (Why this does not fit)

    No leaflet defect or holosystolic apical pattern is present.

  3. C. Increased flow through structurally normal outflow valves (Best answer)

    Anemia can produce a hyperdynamic circulation and an audible systolic flow murmur.

  4. D. Diastolic blood return through an incompetent pulmonary valve (Why this does not fit)

    The murmur is systolic and the valve study is normal.

Takeaway: A flow state is an explanation only after the clinical assessment supports structurally normal valves.

Case sources: [2]

Case 17

A 69-year-old woman develops abrupt pulmonary edema and blood pressure of 82/54 mmHg 4 days after an inferior MI. A new soft apical systolic murmur is present. Bedside echo shows a flail mitral leaflet with severe eccentric MR and no septal defect. What is the appropriate next step?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Emergency stabilization with urgent cardiac surgical and valve-team assessment (Best answer)

    Acute severe MR after MI suggests papillary apparatus failure. Shock and pulmonary edema require urgent definitive assessment despite a soft murmur.

  2. B. Treat pulmonary edema and defer surgical assessment until the infarct has healed (Why this does not fit)

    Medical stabilization is necessary, but shock from an acute mechanical valve complication requires urgent surgical assessment rather than waiting for infarct healing.

  3. C. Repeat coronary revascularization alone as definitive treatment for the MR (Why this does not fit)

    Coronary management may also be needed, but restoring flow does not repair a ruptured papillary apparatus with a flail leaflet.

  4. D. Use diuresis alone and reassess the need for repair after several days (Why this does not fit)

    Diuresis alone cannot correct the structural failure and can be difficult in hypotension. Stabilization and urgent surgical evaluation must occur together.

Takeaway: Acute severe MR is an emergency even without a loud holosystolic sound.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 18

A 57-year-old man develops sudden severe chest pain radiating to his back. Blood pressure differs between arms, and a new early diastolic murmur is heard. CT angiography shows an ascending aortic dissection extending into the root. Which mechanism explains the murmur?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Fixed narrowing of the aortic valve during systole (Why this does not fit)

    The new murmur is diastolic, and the lesion disrupts valve support rather than creating calcific stenosis.

  2. B. Failure of aortic leaflet coaptation from root disruption (Best answer)

    Proximal dissection can disrupt root geometry or commissural support and cause acute AR.

  3. C. Rheumatic fusion of the mitral commissures (Why this does not fit)

    That is a chronic mitral inflow lesion and does not explain the acute aortic imaging finding.

  4. D. Functional tricuspid regurgitation from atrial dilation (Why this does not fit)

    TR is systolic and cannot account for acute root-associated diastolic backflow.

Takeaway: Type A dissection can produce acute diastolic AR and requires emergency surgical assessment.

Case sources: [5]

Case 19

A 79-year-old woman has 4 months of exertional dyspnea and two recent near-syncopal episodes. Echo shows a calcified aortic valve, peak velocity 4.5 m/s, mean gradient 48 mmHg and valve area 0.7 cm². LVEF is 60%. What is the best next step?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Begin medical symptom control and defer valve assessment for 6 months (Why this does not fit)

    Medication may address associated conditions, but it cannot replace prompt intervention assessment for symptomatic severe AS.

  2. B. Continue surveillance while LVEF remains above 50% (Why this does not fit)

    Symptoms with confirmed severe AS already warrant valve replacement evaluation; reduced EF is not required.

  3. C. Valve-team evaluation for aortic valve replacement (Best answer)

    The findings are concordant for severe symptomatic AS. TAVR versus surgery requires anatomy, longevity and preference assessment.

  4. D. Choose balloon valvuloplasty as permanent adult treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Balloon treatment may be a bridge in selected circumstances but is generally not durable definitive therapy for calcific adult AS.

Takeaway: Preserved EF does not defer valve assessment when severe AS causes symptoms.

Case sources: [1] [8]

Case 20

An 81-year-old man has 5 months of worsening dyspnea. Echo shows LVEF 30%, valve area 0.8 cm², mean aortic gradient 26 mmHg and stroke-volume index 27 mL/m². He is stable at rest. Which evaluation best resolves the discordant AS measurements?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Exercise treadmill testing to determine severity from symptom onset (Why this does not fit)

    Exercise testing cannot distinguish true severe from pseudo-severe AS as directly in reduced-EF low-flow disease; low-dose dobutamine assesses flow-dependent valve opening.

  2. B. Use the resting mean gradient alone to classify moderate AS (Why this does not fit)

    Low stroke volume can lower the gradient despite severe obstruction. Integrating flow and valve measurements is essential.

  3. C. Repeat resting valve-area planimetry without assessing flow (Why this does not fit)

    Another resting anatomical estimate alone may not resolve low-flow discordance. Measurement review and flow augmentation or valve calcium assessment address the uncertainty.

  4. D. Review measurements and perform low-dose dobutamine stress echo, with CT calcium assessment if needed (Best answer)

    Assessing the valve response to increased flow helps distinguish true severe from pseudo-severe AS; CT is useful when uncertainty remains.

Takeaway: A small valve area plus a low gradient is a question to resolve, not an automatic severity label.

Case sources: [1] [8]

Case 21

A 56-year-old man with degenerative mitral prolapse feels well on ordinary walks. Serial studies confirm severe primary MR. The current LVEF is 58% and LV end-systolic diameter is 42 mm. What is the best recommendation under ACC/AHA criteria?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Refer for mitral repair evaluation at an experienced valve center (Best answer)

    In severe primary MR, EF at or below 60% or LVESD at least 40 mm signals LV dysfunction and supports intervention assessment.

  2. B. Continue surveillance until EF falls below 50% (Why this does not fit)

    Severe primary MR has an earlier LV dysfunction threshold, LVEF at most 60% or LVESD at least 40 mm. Waiting for 50% delays evaluation.

  3. C. Wait for LVESD to exceed 50 mm (Why this does not fit)

    That delays assessment beyond the guideline threshold for severe primary MR.

  4. D. Start diuretic therapy as a substitute for valve assessment (Why this does not fit)

    Diuretics can treat congestion but cannot correct severe primary leaflet disease or eliminate the intervention indication.

Takeaway: Use lesion-specific LV thresholds; EF 58% is concerning in severe primary MR.

Case sources: [1] [7]

Case 22

A 64-year-old woman with nonischemic DCM has 6 months of exertional dyspnea. Echo shows LVEF 28%, LV dilation, mitral leaflet tethering and severe MR without prolapse or vegetation. She receives only a loop diuretic. What is the best initial long-term strategy?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Immediate mitral replacement before treating the ventricle (Why this does not fit)

    Secondary MR may improve when LV loading and synchrony improve; untreated HF should be addressed first unless an acute emergency changes priorities.

  2. B. Optimize guideline-directed HFrEF therapy and assess CRT eligibility (Best answer)

    The leak follows ventricular remodeling, so treating the ventricle is foundational before assessing persistent severe MR for intervention.

  3. C. Proceed directly to transcatheter edge-to-edge repair before optimizing HF therapy (Why this does not fit)

    TEER may help selected persistently symptomatic patients after optimized therapy; receiving only a loop diuretic leaves major treatable ventricular dysfunction unaddressed.

  4. D. Increase loop diuresis as the sole long-term treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Diuresis can relieve congestion, but it omits disease-modifying HF therapy and assessment for resynchronization that may reduce secondary MR.

Takeaway: Secondary MR demands treatment of its ventricular or atrial driver.

Case sources: [7]

Case 24

A 49-year-old woman has asymptomatic severe primary MR with LVEF 66% and LVESD 34 mm. A valve specialist has selected surveillance after comprehensive assessment. She has no new AF or pulmonary hypertension. Which follow-up is generally appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Echo only if edema develops (Why this does not fit)

    LV dysfunction can develop before obvious edema or resting symptoms.

  2. B. Routine echo in 5 years (Why this does not fit)

    That is too long for severe MR, even with currently preserved LV response.

  3. C. Repeat echocardiography in 2 to 3 years (Why this does not fit)

    This leaves too long a gap to detect evolving LV dysfunction in severe MR.

  4. D. Clinical and echo reassessment about every 6 to 12 months (Best answer)

    Severe MR needs close surveillance of symptoms, EF, dimensions and other intervention triggers.

Takeaway: Stable severe MR still needs close monitoring; the severity must be known before choosing an interval.

Case sources: [1]

Case 25

A 31-year-old woman with rheumatic MS has dyspnea with household activity for 4 months. Mitral area is 1.0 cm². Echo shows mobile leaflets with commissural fusion and mild MR; TEE excludes LA thrombus. Which definitive treatment is most appropriate to evaluate?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (Best answer)

    Symptomatic significant rheumatic MS with favorable anatomy, less than moderate MR and no LA thrombus is suitable for commissural separation.

  2. B. Transcatheter edge-to-edge mitral repair (Why this does not fit)

    Clipping leaflets treats regurgitation in selected patients and would not relieve this stenotic inflow problem.

  3. C. Observation alone for several years (Why this does not fit)

    She is symptomatic with a severely reduced mitral area; observation alone does not address the obstruction.

  4. D. Surgical mitral valve replacement as the preferred initial procedure (Why this does not fit)

    Replacement can be appropriate with unsuitable balloon anatomy or other surgical needs, but favorable rheumatic anatomy supports commissurotomy first.

Takeaway: Before balloon commissurotomy, inspect morphology, MR severity and the LA for thrombus.

Case sources: [7]

Case 26

An 84-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease has 8 months of dyspnea. Echo shows severe mitral inflow obstruction caused by heavy annular calcification, without commissural fusion. Why is rheumatic-style balloon commissurotomy a poor fit?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. Balloon dilation primarily treats associated LV relaxation abnormalities (Why this does not fit)

    Balloon commissurotomy acts on fused commissures, not myocardial relaxation; calcific inflow obstruction requires an anatomical valve-team assessment.

  2. B. There are no fused commissures for the balloon to separate (Best answer)

    Degenerative annular calcification creates a different anatomical obstruction; rheumatic commissurotomy principles do not transfer directly.

  3. C. Balloon dilation corrects annular calcium as reliably as rheumatic fusion (Why this does not fit)

    Calcified annular obstruction lacks the usual splitting plane. Applying the rheumatic technique may be ineffective and can cause regurgitation.

  4. D. A high transmitral gradient by itself guarantees suitable balloon anatomy (Why this does not fit)

    The mechanism and valve anatomy matter in addition to gradient. Severe obstruction does not establish that commissurotomy will help.

Takeaway: Not all MS is rheumatic, and not all MS can be treated by commissurotomy.

Case sources: [7]

Case 27

A 60-year-old man with a mechanical mitral valve develops 10 days of dyspnea after several missed warfarin doses. INR is 1.4. Echo shows restricted leaflet opening and a new mean diastolic gradient of 14 mmHg at 72/min. What is the leading concern?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. Normal flow through a mechanical prosthesis (Why this does not fit)

    The new restriction and increased gradient with symptoms are not routine prosthetic findings.

  2. B. Isolated paravalvular mitral regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    A paravalvular leak occurs during systole and does not primarily explain restricted diastolic opening.

  3. C. Prosthetic valve thrombosis causing mitral obstruction (Best answer)

    Subtherapeutic anticoagulation and new impaired mechanical opening strongly suggest thrombosis, requiring urgent valve-team imaging and management.

  4. D. Slowly progressive pannus ingrowth restricting the prosthesis (Why this does not fit)

    Pannus is a genuine alternative cause of obstruction, but the short course and subtherapeutic anticoagulation favor thrombosis. Multimodality imaging distinguishes them.

Takeaway: New prosthetic obstruction is an urgent imaging and management problem, not a murmur-only diagnosis.

Case sources: [1] [9]

Case 28

A 73-year-old woman has persistent AF for 9 years and progressive edema over 6 months. Echo shows severe TR, marked RA and annular dilation, normal leaflet tissue, preserved RV systolic function and no significant pulmonary hypertension. Which mechanism best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 28
  1. A. Carcinoid leaflet fibrosis (Why this does not fit)

    That would produce structural leaflet thickening and restricted retraction, absent here.

  2. B. Ventricular secondary TR from pulmonary hypertension and RV remodeling (Why this does not fit)

    That mechanism requires the relevant RV pressure and geometric changes; the stem instead describes predominant RA and annular dilation without significant pulmonary hypertension.

  3. C. Rheumatic commissural fusion (Why this does not fit)

    The leaflets are structurally normal without fusion.

  4. D. Atrial secondary TR from annular dilation (Best answer)

    Atrial remodeling associated with longstanding AF can widen the annulus and prevent normal leaflets from coapting.

Takeaway: Distinguish atrial secondary TR from RV pressure-loading and primary leaflet disease.

Case sources: [7]

Case 29

A 35-year-old man with Marfan syndrome has a stable 4.3-cm aortic root and moderate AR. LVEF is 62%; he has no symptoms, rapid growth or family history of early dissection. He tolerates a beta blocker. Which statement best guides ongoing treatment?

Show answer and explanations for case 29
  1. A. Continue individualized aortic surveillance and maximally tolerated beta blocker or ARB therapy; combination may be reasonable (Best answer)

    His diameter alone does not mandate surgery or one mandatory drug addition. Growth, body size, family history and tolerance guide care.

  2. B. Schedule root replacement now using the usual 4.5-cm high-risk threshold (Why this does not fit)

    He is below that threshold and lacks the listed high-risk features. Even the lower threshold is conditional; surveillance and individualized medical treatment fit this stem.

  3. C. Stop aortic medication because moderate AR has preserved EF (Why this does not fit)

    Marfan aortic therapy targets aortic risk, not only LV systolic dysfunction. Preserved EF does not remove its indication.

  4. D. Base follow-up only on the murmur and omit serial aortic imaging (Why this does not fit)

    Aortic enlargement may progress without a useful change in murmur. Serial measurements and clinical risk assessment remain necessary.

Takeaway: Marfan management integrates aortic risk and medication tolerance rather than one diameter alone.

Case sources: [5] [12]

Case 30

A 70-year-old man with documented prior syphilitic aortitis has gradual exertional dyspnea over a year. Imaging shows an aortic root of 6.1 cm, severe AR and LVEF 47%, without dissection. Which explanation and action are most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 30
  1. A. Isolated leaflet injury explains the AR; assess valve replacement without addressing the aorta (Why this does not fit)

    Leaflet pathology can cause AR, but a 6.1-cm root also requires aortic surgical evaluation. A valve-only plan misses major aortic disease.

  2. B. Root enlargement impairs leaflet coaptation; refer for aortic and valve surgical assessment (Best answer)

    Aortic enlargement can separate leaflet coaptation. A root this large and severe AR with LV dysfunction warrant specialist intervention planning.

  3. C. Root dilation explains AR; defer surgery until symptoms occur at rest (Why this does not fit)

    He is already symptomatic with severe AR, reduced EF and marked root dilation. Rest symptoms are not required for surgical assessment.

  4. D. Use medical afterload reduction as definitive treatment for the root aneurysm (Why this does not fit)

    Blood-pressure treatment can be appropriate, but it does not replace aortic and valve surgical assessment at this diameter and degree of valve dysfunction.

Takeaway: Root pathology can cause AR without primary leaflet destruction.

Case sources: [5] [8]

Case 31

A 33-year-old woman with obstructive HCM has 3 months of exertional chest tightness. Resting LVOT gradient is 35 mmHg and exercise gradient is 82 mmHg. She is in sinus rhythm, blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, and there is no congestion. Which initial drug best targets her symptoms?

Show answer and explanations for case 31
  1. A. Digoxin (Why this does not fit)

    Positive inotropy may intensify dynamic obstruction and is a poor choice for this obstructive physiology.

  2. B. High-dose furosemide (Why this does not fit)

    She has no congestion; substantial preload reduction can worsen obstruction.

  3. C. A nonvasodilating beta blocker (Best answer)

    Reduced contractility and heart rate can improve filling and reduce symptoms from dynamic obstruction.

  4. D. Sublingual nitroglycerin before every activity (Why this does not fit)

    Preload reduction may worsen dynamic obstruction; this is not routine treatment of obstructive HCM symptoms.

Takeaway: Treat obstructive HCM physiology and separately assess sudden-death risk.

Case sources: [4]

Case 32

A 52-year-old woman with rheumatic MS develops persistent AF after years in sinus rhythm. Her low apical diastolic rumble remains, but its accentuation immediately before S1 disappears. Which change explains this?

Show answer and explanations for case 32
  1. A. Earlier opening of the aortic valve (Why this does not fit)

    Aortic opening follows S1 and does not create the presystolic mitral inflow component.

  2. B. A sudden increase in mitral valve area (Why this does not fit)

    A rhythm change does not separate fused commissures; persistent diastolic obstruction can remain.

  3. C. Loss of the LA-to-LV pressure difference throughout diastole (Why this does not fit)

    MS can maintain a diastolic pressure difference during AF. What disappears is the organized atrial contraction that augments late filling.

  4. D. Loss of organized atrial contraction (Best answer)

    Presystolic accentuation comes from atrial contraction increasing flow across the stenotic valve; AF abolishes that coordinated contribution.

Takeaway: Rhythm changes can alter a murmur without changing the underlying valve anatomy.

Case sources: [3]

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