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Cardiology

EKG Interpretation

Read ECGs from calibration to clinical action, using rhythm, axis, interval and ischemia patterns with visible diagrams and complete patient cases.

A patient with chest pressure has an ECG labeled abnormal. Before naming a syndrome, decide whether the patient needs immediate resuscitation, whether the recording is trustworthy, and which finding explains the symptoms. A systematic read should produce a clinical interpretation, not a list of waveform adjectives.

An ECG pattern changes probability. A normal tracing cannot exclude acute coronary syndrome, and an isolated abnormality rarely proves one diagnosis.

Establish what the recording measures

Check the patient, recording time, symptoms, lead placement and calibration. Standard speed is 25 mm/s, making one small horizontal square 0.04 s and one large square 0.20 s. At 10 mm/mV, a 10 mm vertical deflection represents 1 mV. A recording at 50 mm/s or half-standard gain changes the arithmetic. Confirm the duration printed on a rhythm strip before using a counting shortcut. [1]

One schematic ECG cycle and its intervalsA small P wave precedes a narrow QRS complex and a broader T wave. A PR bracket extends from P onset to QRS onset. A QT bracket extends from QRS onset to the end of T. The ST segment lies between QRS and T. This diagram illustrates landmarks and is not a calibrated patient recording.PQRSTSTPRQT
QT contains QRS; PR begins at P onset rather than at the end of P.

P represents atrial activation, QRS ventricular activation, and T ventricular recovery. Atrial recovery is usually obscured by QRS. Measure PR from P onset to QRS onset, QRS from earliest ventricular onset to its end, and QT from QRS onset to the T-wave end. A small normal septal q wave is not automatically an infarct scar; distribution, width, depth and the clinical history matter.

A usual adult PR is 120 to 200 ms. A QRS below 120 ms is conventionally called narrow for rhythm classification; complete bundle-branch block requires at least 120 ms plus appropriate morphology. A QRS of 102 ms does not establish complete LBBB. P-wave duration of at least 120 ms with notching or a broad terminal negative component in V1 supports left atrial abnormality. Tall inferior P waves, conventionally over 2.5 mm at standard gain, support right atrial abnormality. Neither pattern alone proves an enlarged chamber; imaging assesses anatomy. [2] [12]

Lead misplacement and motion artifact can imitate disease. Unexpected inversion of lead I or a sudden loss of expected precordial R-wave progression should prompt an electrode check and repeat recording. Low voltage, high voltage and poor R progression require context rather than an automatic etiologic label.

Try it here · Checkpoint 1 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 8

A 48-year-old has a QRS duration of 102 ms, normal lateral septal q waves and no broad notched lateral R waves. An automated report labels complete LBBB. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Complete LBBB with an unusually short QRS (Why this does not fit)

    The tracing lacks both the required complete-block duration and the characteristic lateral morphology.

  2. B. Complete LBBB criteria are not met (Best answer)

    Complete LBBB requires QRS of at least 120 ms and compatible morphology, both lacking here.

  3. C. Complete RBBB (Why this does not fit)

    No terminal right-precordial R-prime/broad lateral S pattern is described, and 102 ms is below the complete RBBB threshold.

  4. D. Ventricular preexcitation (Why this does not fit)

    A short PR and delta-wave onset would support preexcitation; neither is supplied here.

Takeaway: Verify both QRS duration and morphology before accepting a bundle-branch diagnosis.

Case sources: [2]

Describe the atrial and ventricular rhythms separately

For a regular rhythm at standard speed, rate is 300 divided by large squares between R peaks, or 1500 divided by small squares. Four large squares gives 75/min. For an irregular rhythm, count QRS complexes over a verified interval and multiply by 60 divided by its duration in seconds. Twelve complexes in ten seconds estimates 72/min. This is an average, not a description of regularity.

Start with regularity, then inspect atrial activity
PatternUseful discriminatorInterpretation
Sinus rhythmConsistent P before each QRS, usually upright in II and negative in aVRRate can be slow or high. Treat causes of sinus tachycardia such as fever, hypovolemia or pain.
Atrial fibrillationNo consistent discrete P waves and irregular ventricular intervals when AV conduction is intactAssess ventricular response, symptoms and thromboembolic risk. A PR interval cannot be assigned.
Atrial flutterOrganized repetitive atrial activity, often sawtooth in inferior leadsTwo-to-one conduction often gives a ventricular rate near 150/min, but neither that rate nor regularity is mandatory.
Multifocal atrial tachycardiaAt least three P morphologies in one lead, variable PR and irregular intervals at over 100/minDiscrete P waves with intervening isoelectric segments distinguish MAT from AF. Treat pulmonary illness and metabolic contributors.
Regular narrow tachycardiaAbrupt episodes with P waves hidden in or near QRSAVNRT and orthodromic AVRT are possibilities. Rate alone cannot identify the circuit.
Junctional escapeA late narrow complex after sinus failure; P may be absent or retrogradeTiming distinguishes rescue activity from a premature ectopic complex. Retrograde P waves alone do not identify every tachycardia mechanism.

Typical AVNRT usually conducts forward through a slow nodal pathway and returns through a fast pathway. Orthodromic AVRT conducts forward through the AV node and His-Purkinje system and returns through an accessory pathway; QRS is usually narrow unless aberrancy is present. Antidromic AVRT conducts forward through the accessory pathway and usually has a wide QRS.

Vagal maneuvers and adenosine can terminate selected stable, regular narrow tachycardias that require the AV node. Transient AV block may instead reveal continuing flutter activity. Do not apply this strategy indiscriminately to irregular or polymorphic wide-complex rhythms. Wide tachycardia in a patient with prior infarction should be approached as VT until adequately characterized. AV dissociation, capture complexes and fusion complexes support VT. [3] [4]

AF management has separate rate, rhythm and stroke-prevention decisions. In stable AF with rapid ventricular response and no preexcitation, beta blockers or diltiazem/verapamil can provide acute rate control, with the calcium blockers restricted to EF above 40%. Avoid IV diltiazem/verapamil in moderate or severe LV systolic dysfunction. Hemodynamic instability attributable to AF calls for immediate cardioversion.

For elective cardioversion after AF lasting at least 48 hours or an uncertain duration, the 2023 guideline recommends three weeks of therapeutic anticoagulation or imaging to exclude intracardiac thrombus beforehand. Therapeutic anticoagulation must be established before cardioversion in either pathway and continued without interruption for at least four weeks afterward. Long-term treatment depends on thromboembolic risk, not simply episode duration.

The 2023 guideline recommends warfarin over DOACs in AF with rheumatic mitral stenosis or mitral stenosis of moderate or greater severity, independently of CHA2DS2-VASc score; mechanical valves also require a vitamin K antagonist. [5]

Typical flutter circulates around the tricuspid annulus through the cavotricuspid isthmus. Catheter ablation of that isthmus is useful when flutter is symptomatic or resistant to pharmacologic rate control. Atypical flutter may use a different circuit, so an inferior-lead sawtooth pattern does not alone determine the ablation target. A premature atrial complex arrives early with an altered P wave and can conduct normally, aberrantly or fail to conduct; a premature ventricular complex arises in ventricular tissue and usually has a broad QRS. Interpret timing and atrial activity together. [3]

Read direction before naming a conduction disorder

The frontal QRS axis describes the average direction of ventricular activation. A positive net QRS points toward a lead's positive pole; a negative net complex points away. Lead I looks toward 0 degrees, aVF toward +90 degrees and II toward +60 degrees. The usual adult reference range is approximately -30 to +90 degrees. [2]

I positive, aVF positive

Axis between 0 and +90 degrees. This lies within the usual adult range.

I positive, aVF negative

Axis between -90 and 0 degrees. Inspect II. A positive II supports -30 to 0; a negative II supports left-axis deviation below -30.

I negative, aVF positive

Axis between +90 and +180 degrees. Right-axis deviation.

I negative, aVF negative

Axis between -180 and -90 degrees. Extreme axis.

A polarity map of four frontal-plane regions. Nearly isoelectric leads require more precise assessment rather than forced binary classification.

Left anterior fascicular block is supported by marked left-axis deviation with appropriate qR complexes in I/aVL and rS complexes inferiorly, usually without a fully widened QRS. Right-axis deviation has several causes, including right ventricular loading and fascicular disease. RBBB does not automatically imply right-axis deviation. Inferior infarction and body habitus can also influence axis.

Complete RBBB

QRS is at least 120 ms, with a terminal rightward deflection such as rsR' in V1/V2 and a broad terminal S in I or V6. Secondary ST-T discordance can occur in right precordial leads.

Complete LBBB

QRS is at least 120 ms, usually predominantly negative in V1, with broad or notched lateral R waves and absent normal lateral septal q waves. Secondary ST-T changes generally point opposite the main QRS direction. Width alone is insufficient for either label.

Large QRS voltages with lateral ST depression and asymmetric T inversion can support LVH with secondary repolarization abnormalities. For example, the Sokolow-Lyon criterion sums S in V1 and the larger R in V5 or V6, with a threshold of at least 35 mm at standard gain. Voltage criteria are influenced by body habitus and cannot establish ventricular mass alone. A new symptom requires assessment even when an older ECG already shows a strain pattern. [12]

Right-heart strain patterns, including rightward axis or S1Q3T3, may occur in pulmonary embolism, but they neither prove nor exclude it. Use the clinical probability and appropriate testing. Similarly, normal echocardiography cannot exclude an electrical syndrome or every early cardiomyopathy. [14] [9]

Measure conduction and recovery as different problems

To classify AV block, locate P waves throughout the strip, including those hidden in T waves. Compare atrial timing, ventricular timing and PR behavior. A slow pulse alone does not tell you where conduction failed. [6]

  1. First-degree AV delay

    Every P conducts, but PR exceeds 200 ms. There are no dropped ventricular responses by definition.

  2. Mobitz I

    PR progressively lengthens before a nonconducted P, then resets shorter. Grouped ventricular complexes often make the pattern easier to see.

  3. Mobitz II

    Intermittent nonconducted P waves occur without progressive PR lengthening among conducted impulses, with a stable atrial rhythm. Exclude concealed ectopy and other mimics.

  4. Two-to-one block

    Alternate P waves fail to conduct. One conducted PR per cycle does not reveal a progressive sequence, so the strip alone cannot reliably assign Mobitz I or II.

  5. Complete AV block

    Atrial and ventricular rhythms are independent, with no consistent conduction relationship. A junctional or ventricular escape maintains a slower ventricular rhythm.

Symptomatic bradycardia with poor perfusion requires immediate support and treatment of reversible causes such as medication effects, ischemia or electrolyte disturbance. Atropine may help nodal disease, but advanced infranodal block may not respond; prepare pacing and appropriate vasoactive support. Acquired Mobitz II, high-grade block or complete AV block without a reversible or physiologic cause generally warrants permanent pacing, even without symptoms. [4] [6]

QT requires a rate and a reliable T-wave end

Manually confirm the computer measurement when T waves are indistinct, U waves prominent or QRS wide. Bazett QTc equals QT divided by the square root of RR; Fridericia QTc uses the cube root. Use seconds consistently. Bazett tends to overcorrect at high rates and undercorrect at low rates. In wide QRS, consider an appropriate QRS-adjusted method or JT rather than treating all QT prolongation as delayed repolarization. [7]

Common adult screening thresholds for prolonged QTc are about 450 ms in men and 460 ms in women, with substantial context dependence. Values around or above 500 ms deserve particular attention to acquired risk, but no single number guarantees an arrhythmia. Review QT-prolonging drugs, interactions, renal function and potassium, magnesium and calcium. Prolonged QT between episodes distinguishes torsades from other polymorphic VT. [7] [4]

Try it here · Checkpoint 2 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 11

An asymptomatic patient has regular P waves at 84/min and QRS complexes at 42/min. Every other P conducts with a PR of 170 ms. No longer conduction sequences are available. What can be concluded from this strip alone?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Mobitz I is proven by the ventricular rate (Why this does not fit)

    Rate alone does not reveal the mechanism or site of AV block.

  2. B. Complete AV block is proven because some P waves do not conduct (Why this does not fit)

    A fixed two-to-one relation is not equivalent to complete atrioventricular independence.

  3. C. Two-to-one AV block is present, but Mobitz subtype is indeterminate (Best answer)

    There is only one conducted PR per repeating sequence, so progressive PR behavior cannot be established.

  4. D. Mobitz II is proven by a constant PR (Why this does not fit)

    Both nodal and infranodal two-to-one block can show a constant conducted PR; further evaluation is required.

Takeaway: Use the descriptive diagnosis two-to-one block when the strip cannot reveal a Mobitz sequence.

Case sources: [6]

Use contiguous leads and the clinical trajectory

Read ST and T changes in neighboring views of the heart. Inferior leads are II, III and aVF; lateral leads are I, aVL, V5 and V6; V1 through V4 broadly view septal and anterior regions. Coronary territories overlap. An inferior pattern often involves the RCA, but circumflex disease remains possible depending on anatomy. Reciprocal aVL depression supports inferior injury without proving a single culprit vessel. [8]

For standard STEMI criteria in the absence of LVH or LBBB, new J-point ST elevation is required in two contiguous leads, generally at least 1 mm. In V2-V3, thresholds are at least 2 mm in men aged 40 or older, 2.5 mm in younger men, and 1.5 mm in women. These thresholds support a reperfusion decision; their absence does not exclude an acute coronary occlusion. Dynamic symptoms and serial ECGs matter, and an early normal troponin cannot independently exclude MI. [8]

Look behind the anterior depression

ST depression in V1-V3 with tall R waves and upright T waves during ischemic symptoms may be the reciprocal view of posterior infarction. Record V7-V9. Posterior ST elevation of at least 0.5 mm supports this diagnosis; use at least 1 mm in men younger than 40. [17] Additional leads should clarify suspected occlusion without delaying urgent care.

Look right with inferior injury

Inferior ST elevation with hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure and relatively clear lungs raises concern for right ventricular involvement. Record right-sided leads, especially V4R, and avoid nitrates in suspected right ventricular infarction or hypotension. [16]

Early regional broad, bulky T waves can represent hyperacute ischemic changes, whereas diffuse narrow tented T waves suggest hyperkalemia. Shape is imperfect evidence in both directions, so use symptoms, serial tracings and laboratory testing. [8] [11]

Recognize high-risk patterns without overclaiming their specificity

Pain-free biphasic or deeply inverted anterior T waves after anginal symptoms can indicate a Wellens pattern. Arrange urgent coronary assessment; stress testing can provoke ischemia. Upsloping precordial ST depression with tall symmetric T waves can represent a de Winter pattern. Widespread ST depression with aVR elevation suggests global subendocardial ischemia, potentially from severe coronary disease or supply-demand imbalance, rather than proving left-main occlusion. [8]

New LBBB alone is no longer an automatic STEMI equivalent. In a compatible clinical presentation, concordant ST elevation of at least 1 mm, concordant depression of at least 1 mm in V1-V3, or proportionally excessive discordant elevation raises concern. Modified Sgarbossa uses discordant ST elevation of at least 1 mm and at least 25% of the preceding S-wave depth. Apply the criteria to LBBB or ventricular pacing with clinical judgment; negative criteria do not rule out ACS. [8]

Pericarditis can cause widespread ST elevation and PR depression with pleuritic, positional pain; aVR and sometimes V1 may show reciprocal changes. The 2025 ACC guidance integrates symptoms with inflammatory markers, examination and imaging. Early repolarization may produce stable J-point notching or slurring. Neither youth nor concave ST shape establishes a benign diagnosis, and acute infarction can have concave elevation. Compare prior tracings and investigate new concerning symptoms. [10] [8]

T-wave inversion is not specific to coronary disease. Secondary conduction or hypertrophy changes, right ventricular strain, stress cardiomyopathy and acute neurologic illness can also alter repolarization. New chest symptoms or neurologic findings require their own assessment; the waveform cannot identify the cause alone. [7] [14]

Translate the pattern into the next clinical decision

Hyperkalemia can produce peaked T waves, P-wave loss and QRS widening, but findings do not follow a reliable concentration-based sequence. A verified severe potassium abnormality needs attention even with a normal tracing. Toxic ECG changes prompt IV calcium for membrane protection; insulin with glucose redistributes potassium, with glucose monitoring, while elimination therapy addresses excess body potassium. Bicarbonate is not routine acute treatment. [11]

Hypokalemia can flatten T waves and produce ST depression and prominent U waves. T-U fusion can falsely extend the measured QT into a QU interval. Hypocalcemia tends to prolong QT through the ST segment; hypercalcemia tends to shorten it. [18] Cold exposure with bradycardia and J-point humps suggests hypothermia-associated Osborn waves, but a J wave is not pathognomonic and does not define one exact temperature. [7] [13]

A short PR with a delta wave and widened QRS indicates ventricular preexcitation. Short PR alone does not prove an accessory pathway or justify a historical Lown-Ganong-Levine label. Preexcited AF produces an irregular, very rapid rhythm with variable QRS width. Avoid AV nodal blockers, including IV amiodarone, in that setting; choose urgent cardioversion if unstable or appropriate monitored pathway-active treatment if stable. [2] [5]

A coved type 1 ST pattern in V1-V2 during fever, especially with unexplained syncope, warrants Brugada assessment. Exercise-related syncope with a normal resting ECG can still indicate CPVT, particularly when bidirectional or polymorphic VT is documented under specialist supervision. Long QT with exertional, auditory or resting triggers raises a different inherited-syndrome evaluation. An ECG impression is not an automatic indication for an ICD; event history and risk guide treatment. [15] [9]

  1. No pulse with VF or polymorphic VT

    Start CPR and provide unsynchronized defibrillation. Do not wait for laboratory confirmation.

  2. Unstable organized tachycardia with a pulse

    For instability caused by an organized tachyarrhythmia, use synchronized cardioversion when feasible. Sinus tachycardia caused by shock requires treatment of the underlying illness. Sustained polymorphic VT requires unsynchronized shock because reliable synchronization is not possible.

  3. Recurrent torsades with prolonged QT

    Address the culprit medication and electrolyte deficits and consider IV magnesium for recurrences associated with long QT. Routine magnesium is not recommended for polymorphic VT with a normal QT. This treatment supplements, rather than delays, shock for a sustained episode.

  4. Stable patient with an abnormal tracing

    State rate, rhythm, axis, intervals and significant ST-T findings, then identify the leading concern and the test or intervention needed to resolve it.

[4]

Try it here · Checkpoint 3 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 25

A 24-year-old with previously documented ventricular preexcitation develops an irregular wide-complex tachycardia at approximately 240/min. Blood pressure is 74/40 mmHg and the patient is confused but has a pulse. What is the immediate treatment?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Urgent electrical cardioversion (Best answer)

    Hemodynamic instability attributable to preexcited AF requires electrical cardioversion rather than a trial of nodal blockade.

  2. B. IV diltiazem for routine AF rate control (Why this does not fit)

    AV nodal blockade is contraindicated in preexcited AF and may permit dangerous accessory-pathway conduction.

  3. C. IV digoxin followed by observation (Why this does not fit)

    Digoxin is contraindicated in this rhythm and is too slow for unstable tachycardia.

  4. D. IV amiodarone because the QRS is wide (Why this does not fit)

    The AF guideline contraindicates amiodarone in preexcited AF; width alone does not justify its use.

Takeaway: In preexcited AF, instability determines the immediate need for cardioversion.

Case sources: [5] [4]

Interpret the patient and the tracing

Case 1

A stable patient has a regular rhythm recorded at 50 mm/s. R peaks are separated by five large squares. What is the ventricular rate?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. 120/min (Best answer)

    At 50 mm/s, each 5 mm square represents 0.10 s. Five squares is 0.50 s, so the rate is 60/0.50.

  2. B. 60/min (Why this does not fit)

    This would result from incorrectly using the 300 rule for a tracing recorded at twice the standard speed.

  3. C. 150/min (Why this does not fit)

    At this speed, 150/min would require a 0.40 s interval, or four large squares.

  4. D. 300/min (Why this does not fit)

    That rate corresponds to a 0.20 s interval, not the 0.50 s interval shown by the calibration.

Takeaway: Check recording speed before applying a rate shortcut.

Case sources: [1]

Case 2

A 71-year-old reports palpitations. A verified 10-second rhythm strip contains 17 irregularly spaced QRS complexes and no consistent P waves. What is the approximate average ventricular rate?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. 170/min (Why this does not fit)

    Multiplying by ten incorrectly treats the recording as a six-second strip.

  2. B. 51/min (Why this does not fit)

    This would underestimate the rate by treating the recording as twenty seconds.

  3. C. It cannot be estimated because the rhythm is irregular (Why this does not fit)

    A counting method estimates the average rate even when individual RR intervals vary.

  4. D. 102/min (Best answer)

    Seventeen complexes in ten seconds multiplied by six gives an average of 102/min.

Takeaway: Use a known recording duration to estimate an irregular rhythm rate.

Case sources: [1] [5]

Case 3

A 76-year-old with a COPD exacerbation has an irregular narrow-complex rhythm at 124/min. Lead II shows four distinct P-wave shapes, variable PR intervals and isoelectric segments between P waves. Which rhythm is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Typical atrial flutter with fixed two-to-one conduction (Why this does not fit)

    Fixed conduction would give a regular ventricular rhythm with repetitive organized flutter activity rather than four distinct P morphologies.

  2. B. Complete AV block (Why this does not fit)

    Complete block requires atrial and ventricular independence rather than this irregular atrial tachycardia with variable conduction intervals.

  3. C. Multifocal atrial tachycardia (Best answer)

    Multiple discrete P morphologies with variable intervals and tachycardia fit MAT, especially during pulmonary illness.

  4. D. Atrial fibrillation (Why this does not fit)

    AF lacks consistent discrete P waves. The identifiable varied P waves are the key discriminator here.

Takeaway: Irregularity alone cannot distinguish AF from MAT; inspect the atrial waveform.

Case sources: [3]

Case 4

A 64-year-old has palpitations and a regular narrow-complex rhythm at 150/min. During monitored adenosine administration, transient AV block reveals continuous sawtooth atrial activity at 300/min in II, III and aVF, without intervening isoelectric segments. The atrial activity continues throughout the block. Which diagnosis best explains the findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. Focal atrial tachycardia with two-to-one conduction (Why this does not fit)

    Focal atrial tachycardia can persist during AV block, but discrete P waves with isoelectric intervals are more typical. Continuous inferior sawtooth activity favors flutter here.

  2. B. Atrial flutter with two-to-one AV conduction (Best answer)

    The atrial rhythm continues at twice the original ventricular rate when AV conduction is interrupted.

  3. C. AVNRT (Why this does not fit)

    AVNRT can produce the initial regular narrow tachycardia, but the persistent, distinct sawtooth atrial rhythm during AV block favors atrial flutter.

  4. D. Sinus tachycardia at 150/min (Why this does not fit)

    The revealed atrial rate is 300/min and has repetitive flutter activity rather than normal sinus P waves.

Takeaway: Adenosine may expose an atrial rhythm without terminating it.

Case sources: [3] [4]

Case 5

A 27-year-old has abrupt palpitations with a regular narrow-complex rhythm at 186/min. P waves are not clearly visible and blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg. Which conclusion is best supported before further testing?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Possible AV node-dependent reentrant SVT; circuit undetermined (Best answer)

    AVNRT and orthodromic AVRT can both produce this presentation. Response to maneuvers and additional recordings may clarify it.

  2. B. AVNRT established by the ventricular rate of 186/min alone (Why this does not fit)

    Substantial rate overlap exists between AVNRT and other regular narrow tachycardias.

  3. C. Atrial fibrillation established by the absence of visible P waves (Why this does not fit)

    AF usually produces irregular ventricular intervals when AV conduction is intact; obscured P waves alone do not establish it.

  4. D. Sinus tachycardia established by the narrow QRS complexes (Why this does not fit)

    QRS width establishes a conduction feature, not a sinus origin. Abrupt episodes and absent discernible sinus P waves retain a reentrant SVT differential.

Takeaway: Describe what the strip establishes and retain the circuit differential when surface findings overlap.

Case sources: [3] [4]

Case 6

During a routine assessment, a patient has predominantly positive QRS complexes in lead I, negative complexes in aVF and positive complexes in lead II. Which axis range is most consistent?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Between -90 and -30 degrees (Why this does not fit)

    In this region, lead II is generally negative; the positive lead II argues against definite left-axis deviation.

  2. B. Between +90 and +180 degrees (Why this does not fit)

    This region usually gives negative lead I and positive aVF, the reverse polarity pattern.

  3. C. Between -180 and -90 degrees (Why this does not fit)

    Extreme axis generally makes both I and aVF negative.

  4. D. Between -30 and 0 degrees (Best answer)

    Negative aVF identifies a superior direction, while positive II keeps the axis within the modest leftward portion of the normal adult range.

Takeaway: When I is positive and aVF negative, inspect II before diagnosing left-axis deviation.

Case sources: [2]

Case 7

A patient has QRS duration 144 ms, rsR' in V1 and a broad terminal S wave in I and V6. Lead I and aVF are predominantly positive. What is the best interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Complete LBBB with normal axis (Why this does not fit)

    LBBB usually has broad lateral R waves and predominantly negative right-precordial complexes rather than this terminal R-prime pattern.

  2. B. Incomplete RBBB with normal axis (Why this does not fit)

    The QRS duration of 144 ms exceeds the adult complete-block threshold, and the described morphology supports complete RBBB.

  3. C. Complete RBBB with normal axis (Best answer)

    The duration and terminal QRS morphology support RBBB; positive I and aVF indicate an axis between 0 and +90 degrees.

  4. D. Complete RBBB with right-axis deviation (Why this does not fit)

    RBBB morphology does not determine axis. Positive I and aVF locate the axis between 0 and +90 degrees.

Takeaway: Assess bundle morphology and frontal axis independently.

Case sources: [2]

Case 9

A patient with lightheadedness has a regular atrial rhythm. Consecutive conducted PR intervals are 180, 220 and 260 ms, followed by a P wave without a QRS. The next conducted PR is 180 ms. Which pattern is present?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Mobitz I second-degree AV block (Best answer)

    Progressive PR prolongation before a nonconducted P followed by a shorter PR is the characteristic sequence.

  2. B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block (Why this does not fit)

    Mobitz II has intermittent failure without the progressive PR lengthening demonstrated here.

  3. C. First-degree AV delay only (Why this does not fit)

    First-degree delay retains one-to-one conduction. A nonconducted P establishes an additional degree of block.

  4. D. Complete AV block (Why this does not fit)

    Complete block has independent atrial and ventricular rhythms rather than this repeated conduction sequence.

Takeaway: Use PR behavior across several atrial cycles to classify second-degree block.

Case sources: [6]

Case 10

A 72-year-old with recurrent presyncope has a stable atrial rhythm. Conducted PR intervals remain 180 ms, but occasional P waves are not followed by QRS complexes. QRS is 150 ms. Electrolytes are normal and no reversible medication cause is found. Which long-term intervention is generally indicated?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Reassurance based on the normal conducted PR interval (Why this does not fit)

    A normal PR among conducted impulses does not make intermittent Mobitz II block benign.

  2. B. AV nodal blockade to prevent atrial impulses from reaching the ventricles (Why this does not fit)

    Further conduction suppression can worsen bradycardia and does not address the failed conduction system.

  3. C. Defibrillator implantation solely for a broad QRS (Why this does not fit)

    A broad QRS and AV block do not by themselves establish an ICD indication; the primary problem is bradycardic conduction failure.

  4. D. Permanent pacing after appropriate evaluation (Best answer)

    Acquired Mobitz II without a reversible or physiologic cause warrants pacing because of the risk of progression, even if symptoms later resolve.

Takeaway: A normal conducted PR does not exclude dangerous intermittent AV block.

Case sources: [6]

Case 12

A 79-year-old has syncope, a ventricular rate of 30/min and broad QRS complexes. P waves occur regularly at 88/min and pass through QRS and T waves without a consistent PR relationship. Which rhythm best explains the findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Atrial flutter with two-to-one conduction (Why this does not fit)

    The atrial rate and independence do not fit a flutter rhythm transmitted in a fixed two-to-one ratio.

  2. B. Complete AV block with a ventricular escape rhythm (Best answer)

    Independent atrial and ventricular rhythms with a slow broad escape support complete block. Poor perfusion requires urgent support and pacing preparation.

  3. C. Sinus bradycardia at 30/min (Why this does not fit)

    The atria are firing at 88/min, so the slow ventricular rate is not explained by sinus slowing.

  4. D. First-degree AV delay (Why this does not fit)

    First-degree delay has one-to-one conduction with a consistent prolonged PR, which is absent.

Takeaway: Atrial and ventricular independence distinguishes complete AV block from a merely slow sinus rhythm.

Case sources: [6] [4]

Case 13

A patient being assessed before a QT-prolonging drug has a regular rhythm with RR 1.00 s and manually measured QT 480 ms. QRS is narrow. What is the Bazett QTc?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. 480 ms (Best answer)

    The square root of RR in seconds is one, so QT divided by one remains 480 ms.

  2. B. 240 ms (Why this does not fit)

    Dividing by two is not justified by an RR interval of one second.

  3. C. 960 ms (Why this does not fit)

    Multiplying QT by two does not apply at a rate of 60/min.

  4. D. 620 ms (Why this does not fit)

    At RR 1.00 s, the denominator is one. Neither QRS addition nor a different rate correction is needed to obtain Bazett QTc.

Takeaway: At an RR of one second, the numerical QT and Bazett QTc are equal.

Case sources: [7]

Case 14

A febrile patient has sinus tachycardia at 132/min. The automated Bazett QTc is mildly prolonged, but the T-wave end is clear and QRS is narrow. Which approach best refines interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Diagnose congenital long-QT syndrome from the single automated QTc value (Why this does not fit)

    An acute high-rate recording and one computer value cannot establish a congenital syndrome.

  2. B. Remeasure QT from the end of QRS to the end of the T wave (Why this does not fit)

    That measures JT rather than QT and does not correct rate bias in the proposed manner.

  3. C. Disregard QT measurements throughout the current febrile illness (Why this does not fit)

    The measurement still matters, particularly with QT-prolonging drugs; it requires contextual interpretation rather than dismissal.

  4. D. Verify QT manually; consider a correction less biased at high rates (Best answer)

    Bazett often overcorrects at high rates. Confirm the measurement, apply an appropriate validated correction and reassess after the acute cause improves. Fridericia also has rate-dependent limitations; no formula independently diagnoses congenital long QT.

Takeaway: Rate correction is a model, so inspect its limitations before making a syndrome diagnosis.

Case sources: [7]

Case 15

A 60-year-old has ongoing chest pressure with ST elevation in II, III and aVF and reciprocal depression in aVL. Which interpretation is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Inferior injury that uniquely identifies right coronary occlusion (Why this does not fit)

    The distribution localizes inferior injury, but circumflex disease can produce the same pattern depending on coronary anatomy.

  2. B. Diffuse acute pericardial inflammation (Why this does not fit)

    Regional inferior elevation with reciprocal aVL depression during pressure symptoms favors acute coronary injury over diffuse pericarditis.

  3. C. Acute inferior injury needing urgent coronary assessment (Best answer)

    The lead distribution is inferior. RCA disease is common, but circumflex involvement cannot be excluded by these findings alone.

  4. D. Isolated lateral acute injury (Why this does not fit)

    The lateral aVL lead is reciprocally depressed while inferior leads are elevated; this is an inferior localization.

Takeaway: Localize the territory accurately without pretending the surface tracing uniquely maps the culprit artery.

Case sources: [8]

Case 16

A patient has persistent ischemic chest pain. V1-V3 show horizontal ST depression, prominent R waves and upright T waves. Which additional recording is most useful for the suspected territory?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. High right-precordial V1-V2 recordings (Why this does not fit)

    High right-precordial leads can help assess a Brugada phenotype. They do not provide the posterior view needed for this ischemic pattern.

  2. B. Posterior leads V7-V9 (Best answer)

    These leads can reveal posterior ST elevation corresponding to the reciprocal anterior depression.

  3. C. Only an extended lead II rhythm strip (Why this does not fit)

    A rhythm strip helps timing but does not provide the posterior spatial view needed here.

  4. D. Right-sided V4R alone (Why this does not fit)

    V4R assesses right ventricular involvement; it does not directly test the posterior-wall hypothesis.

Takeaway: Consider posterior injury when anterior depression accompanies tall R waves and ischemic symptoms.

Case sources: [8]

Case 17

A patient with inferior ST elevation becomes hypotensive and has raised jugular venous pressure with clear lung fields. Which finding would most directly support right ventricular involvement?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. ST elevation in a right-sided V4R lead (Best answer)

    A right-precordial recording directly samples the suspected right ventricular injury territory.

  2. B. An isolated prominent U wave (Why this does not fit)

    A U wave suggests a repolarization finding and does not localize right ventricular infarction.

  3. C. A long PR interval alone (Why this does not fit)

    AV delay may accompany inferior infarction but does not specifically establish right ventricular injury.

  4. D. A normal posterior V9 lead (Why this does not fit)

    A normal posterior recording does not confirm injury in the right ventricle.

Takeaway: Use right-sided leads when the inferior injury pattern and hemodynamics suggest right ventricular involvement.

Case sources: [8] [16]

Case 18

A 56-year-old is now pain free after several episodes of chest pressure. The ECG shows biphasic T waves in V2-V3 with preserved R progression and no major ST elevation. The initial troponin is not increased. Which next approach is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Proceed with routine treadmill testing before any further assessment (Why this does not fit)

    Suspected Wellens physiology makes exercise provocation inappropriate as a reassurance strategy.

  2. B. Discharge on the basis that being pain free excludes ongoing coronary risk (Why this does not fit)

    Transient symptom resolution does not eliminate a high-risk coronary substrate.

  3. C. Begin investigation with outpatient ambulatory rhythm monitoring (Why this does not fit)

    Rhythm monitoring can investigate intermittent palpitations or syncope but would defer evaluation of a high-risk ischemic T-wave pattern.

  4. D. Urgently assess high-risk anterior ischemia; avoid exercise stress testing (Best answer)

    A compatible Wellens pattern can occur while pain free and before a troponin rise. Provocative stress testing may precipitate ischemia.

Takeaway: A pain-free tracing can reveal an urgent ischemic pattern.

Case sources: [8]

Case 19

A 67-year-old with chest discomfort has LBBB that was absent two years earlier. The patient is stable, and the initial tracing does not meet Sgarbossa or modified Sgarbossa criteria. Which statement is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Absent Sgarbossa criteria safely rules out MI (Why this does not fit)

    These criteria lack sufficient sensitivity to exclude all acute infarction.

  2. B. LBBB prevents every assessment for ischemia (Why this does not fit)

    Clinical evaluation and selected ECG criteria remain informative despite secondary repolarization changes.

  3. C. New LBBB is not diagnostic of STEMI; evaluate for ACS (Best answer)

    Compare symptoms, serial tracings, biomarkers and imaging as appropriate. Negative criteria do not exclude acute coronary disease.

  4. D. Any newly recognized LBBB automatically proves an occluded coronary artery (Why this does not fit)

    New LBBB is no longer treated as an automatic STEMI equivalent in isolation.

Takeaway: Separate an isolated conduction label from the integrated decision about acute coronary occlusion.

Case sources: [8]

Case 20

A patient with ongoing chest pressure and LBBB has a predominantly negative QRS in V3. The preceding S wave is 8 mm deep and discordant J-point ST elevation is 3 mm. Which interpretation is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. The ratio is 8/3, so it cannot be interpreted (Why this does not fit)

    The relevant ratio compares ST elevation magnitude with S-wave depth, giving 3/8 here.

  2. B. Proportional discordance meets a modified Sgarbossa criterion (Best answer)

    The elevation is at least 1 mm and 3/8 is 37.5%, exceeding the 25% proportional threshold in this compatible setting.

  3. C. The change must be normal because ST points opposite QRS (Why this does not fit)

    Some discordance is expected, but excessive proportional discordance is concerning.

  4. D. Only ST elevation over 5 mm can be concerning in LBBB (Why this does not fit)

    Modified criteria account for the size of the preceding S wave rather than relying solely on an absolute 5 mm threshold.

Takeaway: In LBBB, judge discordant elevation relative to the preceding negative QRS amplitude.

Case sources: [8]

Case 21

A patient with severe anemia and tachycardia develops diffuse ST depression with 1 mm ST elevation in aVR. Which inference is most defensible from the ECG alone?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Global subendocardial ischemia is a concern, but the pattern does not identify one coronary lesion (Best answer)

    Severe coronary disease and supply-demand imbalance can produce this pattern; the cause requires clinical assessment.

  2. B. Acute left-main occlusion is proven (Why this does not fit)

    The pattern is not sufficiently specific to establish that anatomy by itself.

  3. C. Anemia excludes a coronary contribution (Why this does not fit)

    Supply-demand stress and underlying coronary disease can coexist.

  4. D. Acute transmural infarction confined to the aVR territory (Why this does not fit)

    aVR is not a discrete coronary territory. Its elevation with widespread depression belongs to a global subendocardial ischemia pattern.

Takeaway: Use aVR as part of a global ischemia assessment without overassigning coronary anatomy.

Case sources: [8]

Case 22

A 32-year-old develops sharp pain after a viral illness. Pain worsens with inspiration and improves when sitting forward. The ECG has widespread ST elevation and PR depression, with opposite changes in aVR. Which interpretation best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Reciprocal change in aVR excludes pericarditis (Why this does not fit)

    aVR may show reciprocal ST and PR changes in pericarditis.

  2. B. Concave ST shape alone rules out infarction (Why this does not fit)

    ST shape is not sufficiently specific to exclude acute coronary disease.

  3. C. The ECG proves a large pericardial effusion (Why this does not fit)

    Electrical inflammation patterns do not quantify pericardial fluid; imaging assesses effusion.

  4. D. Acute pericardial inflammation is likely and should be assessed with examination, inflammatory markers and imaging (Best answer)

    The symptom pattern and diffuse ST/PR changes support pericarditis; an integrated assessment evaluates associated myocardial involvement and complications.

Takeaway: Pericarditis is a clinical and imaging diagnosis supported by ECG findings, not established by ST shape alone.

Case sources: [10] [8]

Case 23

A patient with kidney failure has potassium 7.1 mmol/L and newly widened QRS complexes. The patient has a pulse. Which intervention most immediately addresses the dangerous cardiac membrane effect?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. IV insulin with glucose (Why this does not fit)

    Insulin is appropriate for redistribution, but it does not provide the immediate membrane protection specifically requested here.

  2. B. Nebulized salbutamol (Why this does not fit)

    A beta-2 agonist can supplement intracellular redistribution. It is not a substitute for calcium when toxic ECG changes require membrane stabilization.

  3. C. IV calcium (Best answer)

    Calcium provides membrane stabilization. Potassium redistribution and elimination must be arranged separately.

  4. D. Urgent hemodialysis (Why this does not fit)

    Dialysis can provide definitive potassium elimination in kidney failure, but IV calcium supplies immediate membrane protection while dialysis is arranged.

Takeaway: Treat toxic hyperkalemic ECG changes promptly while addressing the potassium excess.

Case sources: [11]

Case 24

A person rescued after prolonged cold-water exposure is confused and bradycardic with a measured core temperature of 30.2 C. The ECG shows humps at the QRS-ST junction. Which description is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Epsilon waves associated with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    Late depolarization deflections can occur in that disease, but marked cold exposure with measured hypothermia and J-point humps favors Osborn waves.

  2. B. Osborn J waves in a clinical setting of hypothermia (Best answer)

    The location and exposure fit hypothermia-associated J waves, although this waveform is not exclusive to hypothermia.

  3. C. Delta waves proving Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    Delta waves occur at the beginning of QRS with preexcitation, not at the terminal QRS-ST junction.

  4. D. U waves proving potassium is low (Why this does not fit)

    U waves follow the T wave rather than occurring at the J point.

Takeaway: Locate the deflection within the cycle before assigning a waveform name.

Case sources: [13] [7]

Case 26

An asymptomatic adult has PR 108 ms, QRS 86 ms and no delta wave. A report calls this definite Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Which response is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. A PR below 120 ms proves an accessory pathway in every patient (Why this does not fit)

    Enhanced AV conduction and other mechanisms can shorten PR without manifest accessory-pathway activation.

  2. B. The absent delta wave confirms a historical Lown-Ganong-Levine pathway (Why this does not fit)

    That historical label does not identify a single proven anatomic mechanism.

  3. C. A normal QRS excludes every possible supraventricular tachycardia mechanism (Why this does not fit)

    Concealed pathways and AVNRT can exist without a delta wave at rest.

  4. D. Short PR alone does not establish ventricular preexcitation (Best answer)

    Manifest preexcitation requires additional evidence such as a delta wave and altered ventricular activation. History and further evaluation determine significance.

Takeaway: Do not turn one short interval into an unproven accessory-pathway diagnosis.

Case sources: [2] [3]

Case 27

A 69-year-old with prior MI has a regular wide-complex tachycardia at 182/min, systolic pressure 68 mmHg and a palpable pulse. The QRS morphology is uniform and synchronization markers can be obtained. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. IV adenosine before electrical treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Adenosine may help selected stable regular monomorphic wide tachycardias. Profound hypotension requires prompt electrical treatment here.

  2. B. IV procainamide infusion before electrical treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Procainamide is an option in selected stable wide tachycardias, but infusion would delay the indicated shock and may worsen hypotension.

  3. C. Immediate synchronized cardioversion (Best answer)

    An unstable organized monomorphic tachycardia with a pulse is treated with synchronized cardioversion when feasible.

  4. D. IV amiodarone infusion before electrical treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Pharmacological therapy is slower than cardioversion and should not delay shock for this unstable organized rhythm.

Takeaway: Pulse, perfusion and morphology determine the immediate electrical treatment.

Case sources: [4]

Case 28

An inpatient develops sustained polymorphic VT and loses consciousness. Staff cannot obtain reliable synchronization markers. What should occur next?

Show answer and explanations for case 28
  1. A. IV amiodarone before electrical treatment (Why this does not fit)

    The immediate treatment of sustained polymorphic VT is shock. Subsequent drug choice depends on the underlying QT and cause.

  2. B. Immediate unsynchronized shock (Best answer)

    Sustained polymorphic VT requires unsynchronized shock because variable QRS morphology prevents reliable synchronization.

  3. C. Continue waiting for a stable R-wave target (Why this does not fit)

    Waiting for synchronization delays the treatment recommended for sustained polymorphic VT.

  4. D. IV magnesium before electrical treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Magnesium may help recurrent long-QT torsades, but even IV therapy should not delay shock for a sustained episode.

Takeaway: Do not delay shock in sustained polymorphic VT while trying to synchronize.

Case sources: [4]

Case 29

A 58-year-old with rheumatic moderate mitral stenosis is found to have persistent AF. There is no contraindication to anticoagulation. Which long-term stroke-prevention strategy is preferred?

Show answer and explanations for case 29
  1. A. Warfarin with appropriate INR monitoring (Best answer)

    The AF guideline recommends warfarin over DOACs in rheumatic mitral stenosis or mitral stenosis of moderate or greater severity with AF.

  2. B. Apixaban (Why this does not fit)

    The recommendation favoring DOACs for most AF patients does not extend to the rheumatic mitral-stenosis population described here.

  3. C. Aspirin alone because the ventricular rate is controlled (Why this does not fit)

    Rate control does not eliminate AF-associated embolic risk, and aspirin is not an equivalent anticoagulant strategy.

  4. D. Aspirin plus clopidogrel (Why this does not fit)

    Dual antiplatelet therapy does not replace guideline-recommended warfarin for AF with rheumatic mitral stenosis.

Takeaway: Identify mitral stenosis before applying the usual DOAC preference in AF.

Case sources: [5]

Case 30

A stable patient has AF of uncertain duration and no prior anticoagulation. Elective cardioversion is planned. Which preparation best follows the 2023 AF guideline?

Show answer and explanations for case 30
  1. A. One week of therapeutic anticoagulation before cardioversion without thrombus imaging, then four weeks afterward (Why this does not fit)

    Without imaging to exclude thrombus, one week is shorter than the recommended three-week preparation for AF of uncertain duration.

  2. B. Thrombus-excluding imaging followed by cardioversion, starting anticoagulation only after the procedure (Why this does not fit)

    Imaging does not replace the need to establish therapeutic anticoagulation before cardioversion and continue it afterward.

  3. C. Three weeks of therapeutic anticoagulation beforehand, discontinued once sinus rhythm is restored (Why this does not fit)

    Anticoagulation should continue without interruption for at least four weeks afterward; successful conversion does not eliminate the immediate embolic risk.

  4. D. Three weeks of therapeutic anticoagulation or imaging to exclude thrombus, with therapeutic anticoagulation established before cardioversion and continued for at least four weeks afterward (Best answer)

    For AF of uncertain duration, either preparation pathway requires therapeutic anticoagulation before cardioversion and uninterrupted continuation afterward. Assess longer-term treatment separately.

Takeaway: Plan embolic protection before and after elective cardioversion; assess longer-term anticoagulation separately.

Case sources: [5]

Case 31

A 38-year-old has nocturnal syncope and a type 1 coved ST pattern in V1-V2 during fever. QTc is 420 ms and echocardiography is normal. Which assessment is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 31
  1. A. Diagnose LQT3 on the basis of the nocturnal timing of syncope alone (Why this does not fit)

    Trigger timing alone does not override the observed right-precordial type 1 pattern.

  2. B. Offer reassurance once the fever-related ECG abnormalities have resolved (Why this does not fit)

    The dynamic pattern and nocturnal syncope remain concerning even if a subsequent recording normalizes; further evaluation is needed.

  3. C. Refer for Brugada assessment despite normal QT and echocardiography (Best answer)

    The phenotype and symptoms raise an inherited electrical concern not excluded by normal chamber imaging or QT.

  4. D. Treat the findings as benign early repolarization with routine follow-up (Why this does not fit)

    A type 1 right-precordial pattern plus unexplained syncope is not a basis for benign reassurance.

Takeaway: A normal structural study cannot dismiss a concerning electrical phenotype.

Case sources: [9] [15]

Case 32

A teenager has repeated syncope while sprinting. Resting ECG and echocardiography are normal. Specialist-supervised exercise testing produces bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Which diagnosis best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 32
  1. A. Long-QT syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    Concealed long-QT disease can have a normal resting QT, but exercise-induced bidirectional VT is more characteristic of CPVT.

  2. B. Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Best answer)

    Adrenergic provocation with bidirectional VT and a usually normal resting ECG is characteristic of CPVT.

  3. C. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    Early disease can evade echocardiography, but this stress-provoked bidirectional pattern with normal resting studies more strongly supports CPVT.

  4. D. Brugada syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    Brugada events more often occur at rest or during fever, with a characteristic right-precordial ECG pattern, rather than this exercise-provoked bidirectional rhythm.

Takeaway: Exercise-related symptoms may reveal inherited disease that is invisible on a resting tracing.

Case sources: [9]

Case 33

A patient with abrupt dyspnea and pleuritic pain has sinus tachycardia but no S1Q3T3 pattern. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 33
  1. A. Possible PE requiring probability-based assessment (Best answer)

    ECG findings have limited sensitivity. The absence of a classic right-heart strain pattern does not exclude PE.

  2. B. PE excluded by the absence of the classic S1Q3T3 pattern (Why this does not fit)

    Many patients with PE do not have S1Q3T3; the absence of a relatively insensitive pattern cannot exclude the disease.

  3. C. Massive PE established by the presence of sinus tachycardia (Why this does not fit)

    Sinus tachycardia has numerous causes and does not define PE severity or establish the diagnosis.

  4. D. Right ventricular infarction established by sinus tachycardia (Why this does not fit)

    Sinus tachycardia is nonspecific and cannot establish RV infarction. The acute symptoms still require a clinical differential, including PE.

Takeaway: Use ECG to inform the differential without substituting a pattern for the PE diagnostic pathway.

Case sources: [14]

Case 34

A patient with hypertension has a broad notched P wave lasting 132 ms in lead II and a broad terminal negative P component in V1. What is the most appropriate ECG description?

Show answer and explanations for case 34
  1. A. Definite left atrial enlargement measured directly by the ECG (Why this does not fit)

    P-wave findings are indirect electrical indicators, not a direct anatomic measurement.

  2. B. Right atrial abnormality based on a tall narrow P wave (Why this does not fit)

    The described P wave is broad and notched with terminal negativity, not the tall narrow inferior pattern.

  3. C. First-degree AV block established by P duration alone (Why this does not fit)

    First-degree AV delay depends on PR duration from P onset to QRS onset, not P width alone.

  4. D. Left atrial abnormality (Best answer)

    The combination supports altered left atrial activation. Echocardiography can assess chamber size and associated structural disease.

Takeaway: Describe atrial electrical abnormalities accurately and use imaging for anatomy.

Case sources: [12]

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