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Microbiology

E. coli and Shigella: mechanism, tissue and treatment

Distinguish E. coli pathotypes and Shigella, recognize HUS, choose tissue-appropriate urinary therapy, and compare the major neighboring pathogens.

Bloody diarrhea is a description, not an antibiotic order. A child with STEC may be harmed by treatment that is reasonable for selected patients with shigellosis. First identify what the organism is doing, then match testing and treatment to the affected site and severity.

Use the syndrome before the species label

A urine culture and a stool panel can both report Escherichia coli while describing very different diseases. Most intestinal E. coli are harmless residents. Disease depends on the strain's virulence traits, the tissue reached and the host. A species name cannot tell you whether the main problem is bladder adherence, intestinal secretion, epithelial invasion or a circulating toxin. [3]

Start by locating the illness. Dysuria and frequency without fever or flank pain suggest a lower urinary syndrome. Fever with costovertebral-angle pain raises concern for kidney involvement. A newborn with sepsis and meningitis needs a separate invasive-infection framework. For diarrhea, assess hydration, blood, fever, pain, tenesmus and duration before treating an acronym as a complete diagnosis.

Intestinal lumen and surface

ETEC drives secretion. EPEC damages the absorptive surface. EAEC forms aggregative adherence and biofilm.

Colonic epithelium

Shigella and EIEC invade and inflame tissue, producing fever, pain and sometimes blood.

Intestine to microvasculature

STEC makes Shiga toxin. Systemic endothelial injury can produce hemolytic uremic syndrome.

Urinary tract and bloodstream

Adhesins support urinary infection. Capsular and other traits support invasive disease, including neonatal meningitis.

These are functional locations, not mutually exclusive strain categories. Hybrid strains and overlapping symptoms exist. The diagram distinguishes the process that must be explained in the patient.

On routine laboratory media, many E. coli isolates ferment lactose and appear pink on MacConkey agar. Klebsiella can also ferment lactose. A pink colony therefore does not prove E. coli, and a pale colony does not exclude every E. coli pathotype. Shigella and enteroinvasive E. coli are especially difficult to separate with simplified biochemical rules. Confirmatory methods matter. [4] [19]

Watery diarrhea: secretion, surface damage or persistent adherence

ETEC commonly causes travelers' diarrhea. Its heat-labile toxin, LT, modifies the stimulatory G protein through ADP-ribosylation, increasing adenylate cyclase activity and intracellular cAMP. Its heat-stable toxin, ST, activates intestinal guanylate cyclase C and increases cGMP. Both pathways favor intestinal fluid loss, but they are not the same molecular pathway. A strain may produce one toxin or both. [4] [6] [21]

Contrast that secretory mechanism with EPEC. EPEC uses an attaching-and-effacing interaction: the bacterial protein intimin engages Tir, a receptor delivered into the host membrane, and the host actin cytoskeleton forms a pedestal beneath the attached organism. Microvilli are lost at that site. The result is impaired absorptive function and watery diarrhea, particularly in infants. The attaching-and-effacing pattern alone does not distinguish EPEC from every STEC strain; Shiga toxin status and other markers remain important. Watery stool does not itself exclude STEC, which may begin without visible blood. [4]

EAEC is associated with aggregative, often stacked-brick adherence and biofilm formation. It can cause persistent watery diarrhea, but acute illness is also possible. Do not use duration alone to assign the pathotype. DAEC is a separate diffusely adherent category, not another name for EAEC. A positive molecular result also needs interpretation in the symptomatic patient rather than automatic attribution of every complaint to the detected organism. [3] [20]

Timing can direct attention outside the E. coli group. Sudden vomiting a few hours after a handled food may fit preformed staphylococcal enterotoxin; rapid emesis after mishandled rice can fit emetic Bacillus cereus. The later diarrheal B. cereus syndrome has a different dominant symptom and toxin setting. Food associations overlap, so a named dish is supporting evidence rather than a species test. [4]

Rehydration is the first shared treatment principle. Severity, ability to drink, ongoing losses, travel history and signs of invasive disease determine further evaluation. Avoid reflexively prescribing one antibiotic for every watery stool or assuming that every traveler has ETEC. The next decision is whether blood, severe pain or systemic illness changes the differential.

Bloody diarrhea: separate Shiga toxin from epithelial invasion

STEC means Shiga toxin-producing E. coli. EHEC is commonly used for the subgroup associated with hemorrhagic colitis and HUS. Severe abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea after a relevant food or animal exposure suggest STEC even with little fever. Ground beef is a classic vehicle, but produce, water and contact with animal environments also matter. Shiga toxin injures susceptible host cells by depurinating a specific adenine in 28S ribosomal RNA, disabling the 60S ribosomal subunit. It does not act by ADP-ribosylating elongation factor 2. [3] [5]

Shigella more often presents with fever, cramps, tenesmus and frequent small bloody or mucoid stools. A low infectious dose and person-to-person spread explain childcare and household outbreaks. Humans are the principal reservoir. The four traditional species are S. sonnei, S. flexneri, S. boydii and S. dysenteriae. Their shared invasive syndrome does not mean that every isolate produces classic Shiga toxin. Toxin-associated HUS is especially linked to S. dysenteriae type 1 and other toxin-producing strains. [2] [4]

EIEC shares important invasion machinery with Shigella and can produce a similar inflammatory illness. Lactose fermentation is variable and often absent; the old rule that every EIEC isolate is lactose-positive is unreliable. Some molecular panels report a combined Shigella/EIEC target because markers such as ipaH are shared. A positive shared target does not by itself settle which organism is present. [19]

These distinctions change management. For suspected STEC, obtain testing that can detect Shiga toxin or its genes and identify O157 as appropriate. Routine O157 culture or sorbitol screening alone misses non-O157 STEC. Avoid antimotility drugs in bloody diarrhea and avoid antibiotics for STEC because of concern for HUS. For shigellosis, many mild cases resolve with supportive care, while selected severe or high-risk cases merit antibiotics chosen with susceptibility information. Rising resistance makes an old default ciprofloxacin prescription unreliable. [1] [2]

After shigellosis, a patient may develop reactive arthritis with sterile joint inflammation. That association supports a differential; it does not make an acutely hot swollen joint exempt from evaluation for septic arthritis. Seizures in young children, bacteremia in vulnerable patients and dehydration are other potential complications. [2]

When intestinal illness becomes a microvascular emergency

A child whose diarrhea is improving can still be developing HUS. Watch for pallor, fatigue, reduced urine output and bruising. The key triad is microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute kidney injury. Fragmented erythrocytes, increased LDH and reduced haptoglobin support intravascular hemolysis. The kidney injury reflects thrombotic microangiopathy rather than simply urinary colonization by E. coli. [1] [5]

Check a blood count, platelet count, renal function, electrolytes and hemolysis studies when the syndrome is suspected. Follow fluid balance and blood pressure. Early appropriate hydration during STEC diarrhea may reduce renal complications, but established oliguria requires careful individualized fluid management. Giving unlimited fluid to a patient who cannot excrete it is not the same as correcting early dehydration. Dialysis and transfusion support may be needed in severe disease. [1]

TTP, complement-mediated HUS and disseminated intravascular coagulation also enter the differential. Markedly reduced ADAMTS13 activity supports TTP. Coagulation studies and the clinical context help assess DIC; a single normal prothrombin time is not an absolute exclusion. Neurologic findings can occur in HUS, and adults can develop STEC-associated HUS. Neither age nor one affected organ substitutes for evaluating the full microangiopathy. [1] [23]

The antibiotic caution is specific to the STEC setting. It must not be generalized to untreated bacterial sepsis. LPS from Gram-negative organisms activates inflammatory signaling, with lipid A central to endotoxin activity. LPS can be delivered in outer-membrane vesicles, so release is not limited to bacterial death. A patient in septic shock needs prompt appropriate antimicrobial and supportive treatment; the existence of endotoxin is not a reason to withhold it. [7] [8] [18]

Outside the bowel: adherence, capsule and tissue penetration

Uropathogenic E. coli commonly reaches the urinary tract by an ascending route. Type 1 fimbriae support urinary adherence, and P fimbriae recognize Gal-Gal-containing receptors and are associated with pyelonephritis. Those associations are useful mechanistically but are not absolute anatomical labels: finding P fimbriae does not prove kidney infection, and pyelonephritis can occur without them. Hemolysin contributes to tissue injury; siderophores such as aerobactin support iron acquisition. [15]

A lower urinary infection in a stable patient may be treated with nitrofurantoin when appropriate and susceptible. Fever, flank pain or bacteremia changes the required drug distribution. Nitrofurantoin does not achieve adequate renal parenchymal concentrations for pyelonephritis. White-cell casts can support renal inflammation but also occur in noninfectious interstitial disease. Use the symptoms, cultures and overall assessment, not one urinary sediment finding alone. [7] [8]

Susceptibility data and prior resistant isolates guide therapy. ESBL-producing Enterobacterales can resist many usual beta-lactams; KPC is a carbapenemase, not another name for every ESBL. Mucoid lactose-fermenting Klebsiella can cause urinary and invasive disease in healthcare and community settings. A capsule explains the colony texture, but it does not tell you which antibiotic is active. [7]

In neonatal E. coli meningitis, the K1 polysialic-acid capsule is a major virulence association. Its resemblance to host polysialic structures and the group B meningococcal capsule helps explain historical difficulties with capsular vaccine development. That history does not mean MenB vaccines are unavailable: current MenB products target proteins rather than relying on the poorly immunogenic group B capsule. Do not transfer an old capsule argument into a false statement about present vaccination. [16] [17]

Proteus supplies another urinary mechanism. Urease generates ammonia, alkalinizing urine and favoring magnesium ammonium phosphate, or struvite, stones. Swarming growth supports Proteus identification. Other organisms can make urease, and not every staghorn calculus is struvite. An obstructed infected urinary system is a source-control problem as well as an antibiotic-selection problem. [8] [22] [24]

Keep the original neighboring organisms in the differential

Salmonella and Shigella are both enteric Gram-negative organisms, but their patterns differ. Nontyphoidal Salmonella can invade beyond the intestine, including bone infection in a patient with sickle cell disease. S. aureus also remains an important cause of osteomyelitis in that population; the association is not a universal ranking. A Gram-negative isolate producing hydrogen sulfide helps the laboratory distinction. Typhoid fever is a systemic illness caused by Salmonella Typhi, with prolonged fever and sometimes rose spots. Blood culture is central; Widal serology is not reliable confirmation. Persistent gallbladder carriage helps explain ongoing transmission after recovery. [4] [9]

Campylobacter jejuni is a curved, microaerophilic Gram-negative organism associated with poultry and inflammatory diarrhea. Its growth preference around 37 to 42 degrees Celsius fits avian carriage. A later ascending neuropathy suggests Guillain-Barré syndrome, a recognized postinfectious complication. Many enteric pathogens cause fever or blood, so exposure, testing and complications must be interpreted together. [10]

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an oxidase-positive nonfermenting Gram-negative rod that may produce blue-green pyocyanin. It is a major consideration in ventilator-associated pneumonia and vulnerable hosts, but pigment is not required in every isolate. Severe persistent external ear pain with canal granulation in a person with diabetes suggests necrotizing otitis externa and possible skull-base involvement, requiring urgent evaluation rather than treatment as uncomplicated swimmer's ear. [11]

In neutropenia, rapidly necrotic skin lesions suggest ecthyma gangrenosum. Pseudomonas is classic, but other bacteria and fungi can cause a similar appearance. Obtain appropriate cultures and tissue evaluation while treating a serious infection. In cystic fibrosis, mucoid Pseudomonas and its alginate-rich biofilm are important; they are not the only possible airway organisms. Burkholderia cepacia complex contains species with differing outcomes, and transplant suitability requires specialist, center-specific assessment rather than a blanket exclusion based on a shorthand organism name. [11] [12] [13] [14]

Cases: make the mechanism change the decision

Read the symptoms, specimen and decision carefully. These original cases retain the broader organisms tested in the source lesson.

Case 1

A nonpregnant 24-year-old has dysuria and urinary frequency without fever or flank pain. Urine grows a lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rod identified as E. coli. Which virulence function best supports the initial establishment of this infection?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Shiga toxin depurination of renal ribosomes as the defining cause of cystitis (Why this does not fit)

    STEC-associated microangiopathy is a different mechanism from this lower urinary infection.

  2. B. A preformed emetic toxin in the bladder (Why this does not fit)

    Preformed food toxins do not explain this culture-confirmed urinary syndrome.

  3. C. Loss of all ability to ferment carbohydrates (Why this does not fit)

    The isolate ferments lactose, and fermentation loss is not the adherence mechanism.

  4. D. Adherence to urinary epithelium through fimbrial adhesins (Best answer)

    Attachment helps the organism persist despite urinary flow and fits the localized urinary syndrome.

Takeaway: A species name is less informative than the virulence function at the infected site.

Case sources: [15] [8]

Case 2

A 9-day-old with meningitis has E. coli isolated from cerebrospinal fluid. The isolate expresses a K1 capsule. Which property most directly explains the classic capsule association?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. A protein that binds the Fc region of IgG (Why this does not fit)

    Protein A is a staphylococcal immune-evasion factor, not the chemistry of the E. coli K1 capsule.

  2. B. An enterotoxin that activates intestinal guanylate cyclase (Why this does not fit)

    ETEC ST causes secretion through cGMP; that mechanism does not explain the K1 capsule association.

  3. C. A polysialic-acid capsule that contributes to immune evasion (Best answer)

    K1 is a major invasive-neonatal virulence association and resembles host polysialic structures.

  4. D. A surface adhesin that binds Gal-Gal-containing urinary receptors (Why this does not fit)

    P fimbriae support urinary adherence, while the named K1 antigen is a capsule associated with invasive neonatal disease.

Takeaway: Distinguish an antiphagocytic capsule from an enterotoxin or urinary adhesin.

Case sources: [16]

Case 3

A traveler develops afebrile watery diarrhea. An ETEC isolate produces heat-labile toxin but no heat-stable toxin. Which signaling change best explains the secretory response?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (Why this does not fit)

    That protein-synthesis mechanism belongs to other toxins, not ETEC LT.

  2. B. ADP-ribosylation of Gs with increased cAMP (Best answer)

    LT activates the adenylate-cyclase signaling pathway through its effect on the stimulatory G protein.

  3. C. Direct guanylate cyclase C activation with increased cGMP (Why this does not fit)

    That is the characteristic ST pathway, which the isolate does not produce.

  4. D. Depurination of 28S rRNA in the 60S subunit (Why this does not fit)

    That describes Shiga toxin and does not explain this specified LT mechanism.

Takeaway: Separate LT-cAMP from ST-cGMP rather than treating both ETEC toxins as identical.

Case sources: [21] [6]

Case 4

A 6-year-old develops severe abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhea after a farm picnic. The temperature is 37.4 degrees Celsius. Stool testing detects Shiga toxin genes. Which diagnosis is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. STEC infection (Best answer)

    The toxin result plus hemorrhagic colitis establishes a stronger match than the food history alone.

  2. B. ETEC secretory diarrhea (Why this does not fit)

    ETEC is defined by LT and/or ST, not the detected Shiga toxin genes.

  3. C. Preformed staphylococcal food intoxication (Why this does not fit)

    That usually causes rapid vomiting and does not explain this toxin assay.

  4. D. Proteus urinary infection (Why this does not fit)

    The syndrome and positive stool result localize the illness to an enteric pathogen.

Takeaway: A molecular toxin result identifies the mechanism that changes treatment.

Case sources: [1] [3]

Case 5

Several children in one childcare room have fever, painful urgency to defecate and frequent small bloody stools. Culture identifies Shigella sonnei. Which feature helps explain efficient spread between children?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Acid sensitivity requiring a large inoculum to survive gastric passage (Why this does not fit)

    That would make small-dose person-to-person spread less efficient and does not describe the classic Shigella pattern.

  2. B. Illness caused exclusively by toxin formed in food before ingestion (Why this does not fit)

    Shigella spreads as an invasive organism; this is not exclusively a preformed food-toxin outbreak.

  3. C. A poultry reservoir with no meaningful person-to-person spread (Why this does not fit)

    Poultry is a stronger association for Campylobacter; human fecal-oral spread explains this Shigella outbreak.

  4. D. A low infectious dose with fecal-oral person-to-person transmission (Best answer)

    Small inocula can transmit infection in a setting with close contact and toileting assistance.

Takeaway: The low dose and human reservoir explain why hygiene and outbreak control matter.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 6

Two weeks after confirmed shigellosis, an adult develops an asymmetric swollen knee and ankle with conjunctival irritation. Initial joint culture is negative. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. The negative culture eliminates every infectious joint diagnosis (Why this does not fit)

    Sampling and prior therapy can affect culture sensitivity.

  2. B. The eye symptoms establish HUS (Why this does not fit)

    HUS requires the microangiopathic anemia, thrombocytopenia and kidney-injury pattern, which is not presented.

  3. C. Reactive arthritis is plausible, while septic arthritis still requires clinical exclusion (Best answer)

    The postenteric pattern supports reactive arthritis, but a single negative culture is not a universal safety guarantee.

  4. D. Shigella must be multiplying in every affected joint (Why this does not fit)

    Reactive arthritis is an inflammatory complication and does not require viable organisms in the joint.

Takeaway: A recognized postinfectious complication does not erase an urgent competing diagnosis.

Case sources: [2]

Case 7

A hospitalized patient with a urinary catheter has fever and a mucoid lactose-fermenting Klebsiella pneumoniae isolate. Susceptibility testing shows an ESBL phenotype without detected carbapenemase. Which conclusion is justified?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Klebsiella cannot cause infection outside hospitals (Why this does not fit)

    Community infection also occurs, so the setting is not an absolute species restriction.

  2. B. The capsule supports the mucoid appearance, while susceptibility results must guide treatment (Best answer)

    Colony texture and resistance testing answer different questions.

  3. C. Mucoid colony texture by itself proves KPC carbapenemase production and determines which antibiotics will work (Why this does not fit)

    A capsule does not identify a specific resistance enzyme.

  4. D. Every ESBL is a carbapenemase by definition (Why this does not fit)

    ESBL and carbapenemase categories are not interchangeable.

Takeaway: Identify the organism and the resistance mechanism separately.

Case sources: [7]

Case 8

A patient with dysuria develops fever, vomiting and right costovertebral-angle tenderness. Urine culture grows E. coli and white-cell casts are seen. Which interpretation best connects these findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. The clinical syndrome supports pyelonephritis; casts support renal inflammation but are not specific (Best answer)

    Fever and flank findings provide the localization that casts alone cannot prove.

  2. B. White-cell casts are pathognomonic for E. coli pyelonephritis and establish the organism without culture confirmation (Why this does not fit)

    Other renal inflammatory conditions can produce these casts.

  3. C. The infection remains uncomplicated cystitis because urine is positive (Why this does not fit)

    A positive urine culture does not restrict infection to the bladder.

  4. D. Nitrofurantoin is preferred because it concentrates in renal tissue (Why this does not fit)

    Nitrofurantoin lacks adequate renal parenchymal concentrations for this illness.

Takeaway: Locate infection with the clinical syndrome before choosing a drug for that tissue.

Case sources: [7] [8]

Case 9

An intubated patient develops a new infiltrate and purulent secretions. A respiratory isolate is an oxidase-positive nonfermenting Gram-negative rod producing blue-green pigment. Which organism is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Escherichia coli (Why this does not fit)

    Typical E. coli is oxidase-negative and does not produce pyocyanin.

  2. B. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Why this does not fit)

    Klebsiella usually ferments lactose and does not fit this pigment-oxidase combination.

  3. C. Shigella sonnei (Why this does not fit)

    Shigella is an enteric invasive pathogen and does not fit this respiratory isolate phenotype.

  4. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Best answer)

    The nonfermenting phenotype and pyocyanin strongly support Pseudomonas in this pulmonary setting.

Takeaway: Use several laboratory properties together instead of relying on one color.

Case sources: [11]

Case 10

An infant with watery diarrhea has an E. coli strain that forms actin pedestals beneath adherent bacteria. The strain lacks Shiga toxin genes. Which bacterial-host interaction explains the lesion?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Heat-labile toxin modification of Gs (Why this does not fit)

    LT causes cAMP-mediated secretion rather than the structural attaching-and-effacing lesion.

  2. B. Shiga toxin depurination of host 28S rRNA (Why this does not fit)

    That mechanism is excluded by the toxin-negative result and does not explain the attachment structure itself.

  3. C. Intimin binding to translocated Tir with local microvillus effacement (Best answer)

    This attaching-and-effacing mechanism is characteristic of EPEC in the stated toxin-negative setting.

  4. D. Heat-stable toxin stimulation of guanylate cyclase C (Why this does not fit)

    ST promotes secretion through cGMP but does not create the described actin pedestal.

Takeaway: The structural lesion identifies a mechanism; toxin testing helps interpret the pathotype.

Case sources: [4]

Case 11

A traveler has persistent watery diarrhea. An E. coli isolate shows stacked-brick adherence in a cell assay and a prominent surface biofilm. Which classification best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Enteropathogenic E. coli (Why this does not fit)

    EPEC produces attaching-and-effacing lesions rather than the specified stacked-brick aggregation pattern.

  2. B. Enteroaggregative E. coli (Best answer)

    Aggregative adherence supports EAEC; persistent illness is compatible but not required.

  3. C. Diffusely adherent E. coli solely because the diarrhea persists (Why this does not fit)

    DAEC is a separate adherence category and duration does not override the observed pattern.

  4. D. Enteroinvasive E. coli (Why this does not fit)

    Invasion is a different mechanism from the described aggregative surface adherence.

Takeaway: EAEC names an adherence pattern, not a mandatory minimum illness duration.

Case sources: [3] [20]

Case 12

A child with STEC develops endothelial injury. A toxin assay shows loss of a particular adenine from 28S rRNA. Which cellular function is directly impaired?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Protein synthesis by the 60S ribosomal subunit (Best answer)

    Shiga toxin depurination disables the ribosomal machinery.

  2. B. Guanylate cyclase C signaling at the intestinal membrane (Why this does not fit)

    ST stimulates this pathway, but the assay here directly identifies a ribosomal lesion.

  3. C. Nicotinic receptor binding at the motor end plate (Why this does not fit)

    The toxin target given is intracellular rRNA rather than a neuromuscular receptor.

  4. D. DNA replication through direct bacterial gyrase inhibition (Why this does not fit)

    The affected molecule is host ribosomal RNA, not bacterial gyrase.

Takeaway: Shiga toxin is an RNA N-glycosidase; identify the precise target.

Case sources: [5]

Case 13

A child with bloody diarrhea has no O157 colonies detected by routine screening. The laboratory has not tested for Shiga toxin or its genes. Which conclusion is appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Every STEC isolate must be excluded by the negative O157 screen (Why this does not fit)

    STEC includes clinically important non-O157 strains.

  2. B. All non-O157 E. coli are harmless intestinal residents (Why this does not fit)

    Pathogenicity depends on virulence traits, not absence of that serogroup.

  3. C. A sorbitol-fermenting isolate proves shigellosis (Why this does not fit)

    Sorbitol behavior alone is not a Shigella confirmation method.

  4. D. Non-O157 STEC remains possible and needs appropriate toxin testing (Best answer)

    O157-focused screening does not detect the entire STEC group.

Takeaway: Test for the toxin mechanism as well as a familiar serogroup.

Case sources: [1]

Case 14

Five days after bloody diarrhea, a 7-year-old becomes pale and oliguric. Platelets are 58,000 per microliter, creatinine has increased and the smear shows schistocytes. Which syndrome best explains the combined findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Simple dehydration without microangiopathy (Why this does not fit)

    Dehydration alone does not explain thrombocytopenia with schistocytic hemolysis.

  2. B. Acute cystitis (Why this does not fit)

    Bladder infection does not account for the systemic microangiopathic pattern.

  3. C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (Best answer)

    Microangiopathic hemolysis, thrombocytopenia and kidney injury after enteritis form the characteristic triad.

  4. D. Isolated immune thrombocytopenia (Why this does not fit)

    That would not explain the fragmented erythrocytes and acute kidney injury.

Takeaway: Recognize HUS even when gastrointestinal symptoms are beginning to improve.

Case sources: [1]

Case 15

An otherwise stable adult has severe bloody diarrhea, and stool testing confirms STEC. Oral hydration is possible. Which plan best avoids a treatment-associated risk?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Withhold all fluids until the diarrhea stops (Why this does not fit)

    Ongoing losses require hydration assessment and replacement.

  2. B. Provide hydration and monitoring while avoiding antibiotics and antimotility drugs (Best answer)

    STEC warrants concern for HUS, and these drugs should not be routine treatment.

  3. C. Give loperamide specifically because bloody diarrhea indicates rapid transit and therefore requires immediate motility suppression (Why this does not fit)

    Antimotility treatment is inappropriate in bloody diarrhea and STEC.

  4. D. Start ciprofloxacin for every Shiga toxin-positive stool (Why this does not fit)

    Antibiotic exposure may increase HUS risk and is not routine STEC treatment.

Takeaway: A confirmed STEC result should change the usual impulse to suppress or sterilize diarrhea.

Case sources: [1]

Case 16

Four adults have E. coli infections with isolates reported susceptible to nitrofurantoin. Each has adequate renal function and no drug allergy. Which patient has the infection site most appropriate for oral nitrofurantoin?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. An afebrile nonpregnant patient with dysuria and frequency but no flank pain (Best answer)

    A lower urinary syndrome is consistent with the urinary distribution of nitrofurantoin.

  2. B. A patient with fever, vomiting and costovertebral-angle tenderness (Why this does not fit)

    Pyelonephritis requires adequate renal parenchymal drug exposure, which nitrofurantoin does not provide.

  3. C. A patient with persistent E. coli bacteremia after urinary obstruction but no remaining concern for tissue infection (Why this does not fit)

    A bloodstream infection needs effective systemic exposure and source management, not urine-only activity.

  4. D. A patient with a renal abscess on imaging (Why this does not fit)

    An abscess in renal tissue requires a tissue-active regimen and assessment for source control.

Takeaway: Susceptibility does not compensate for inadequate drug exposure at the infected site.

Case sources: [7] [8]

Case 17

A patient with febrile dysentery has a stool panel reported as Shigella/EIEC detected. The isolate is lactose-negative. Which interpretation is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Lactose negativity proves EIEC is impossible (Why this does not fit)

    Many EIEC isolates are lactose-negative or variable.

  2. B. A shared ipaH result proves simultaneous infection with both Shigella and EIEC and definitively distinguishes the two organisms (Why this does not fit)

    The assay may detect either group rather than demonstrating two separate infections.

  3. C. The result identifies ETEC heat-stable toxin (Why this does not fit)

    The reported invasion-associated target is different from ETEC toxin testing.

  4. D. The shared molecular target and lactose result do not definitively separate Shigella from EIEC (Best answer)

    These organisms share invasion markers, and EIEC fermentation behavior is not uniformly positive.

Takeaway: Read what a molecular assay actually distinguishes before assigning a species.

Case sources: [19]

Case 18

A child with sickle cell disease has fever and focal tibial pain. Bone culture grows a Gram-negative rod that produces hydrogen sulfide and is identified as nontyphoidal Salmonella. Which teaching statement is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Hydrogen sulfide production confirms Shigella (Why this does not fit)

    Shigella does not fit the classic H2S-producing laboratory distinction.

  2. B. A positive bone culture is irrelevant because Salmonella is confined to the intestine and cannot cause osteomyelitis (Why this does not fit)

    Salmonella can cause extraintestinal invasive disease.

  3. C. Salmonella is an important osteomyelitis association, while S. aureus remains a competing cause before culture (Best answer)

    The culture establishes this case; the host association should not become a universal ranking.

  4. D. Sickle cell disease excludes staphylococcal osteomyelitis (Why this does not fit)

    Both organisms are important, and host status alone does not exclude either.

Takeaway: An association guides initial suspicion; a bone isolate determines this diagnosis.

Case sources: [4] [9]

Case 19

A traveler returns with sustained fever, abdominal discomfort and faint rose-colored trunk lesions. Typhoid fever is suspected. Which diagnostic approach is preferred over the old Widal test?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Wait for a gallbladder stone before considering Typhi (Why this does not fit)

    Carriage may involve the gallbladder, but stones are not required for acute diagnosis.

  2. B. Obtain blood cultures and assess travel-related resistance when choosing treatment (Best answer)

    Blood culture is central to confirmation, while resistance varies by travel setting.

  3. C. Use a single Widal titer as definitive confirmation and choose treatment without obtaining blood cultures (Why this does not fit)

    Widal testing has important reliability limitations and is not recommended as definitive diagnosis.

  4. D. Diagnose ETEC solely because any traveler has diarrhea (Why this does not fit)

    This systemic prolonged fever pattern differs from uncomplicated ETEC diarrhea.

Takeaway: Enteric fever is a systemic infection; use microbiologic confirmation that can guide therapy.

Case sources: [9]

Case 20

A neutropenic patient develops fever and a rapidly enlarging necrotic skin lesion with a dark center. Ecthyma gangrenosum is suspected. What is the best diagnostic stance?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Treat serious infection urgently and obtain cultures or tissue because Pseudomonas is classic but not exclusive (Best answer)

    Other bacteria and fungi can resemble this lesion, so the appearance cannot settle the organism.

  2. B. The lesion is pathognomonic and no specimen is useful (Why this does not fit)

    A clinical association does not remove the need to establish the pathogen.

  3. C. Wait for neutrophils to normalize before investigating (Why this does not fit)

    The current vulnerable host and rapid necrosis require urgent action.

  4. D. Diagnose an invasive mold infection solely from neutropenia and skin necrosis without obtaining cultures or tissue evaluation (Why this does not fit)

    Fungi belong in the differential, but this appearance and host status do not uniquely identify them.

Takeaway: A memorable skin pattern should accelerate care without ending the differential.

Case sources: [12]

Case 21

A patient has fever and bloody diarrhea after undercooked poultry. Stool identifies curved microaerophilic Gram-negative bacteria that grow well near 42 degrees Celsius. Two weeks later, tingling and ascending weakness develop. Which pairing best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. STEC followed by hemolytic uremic syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    Anemia, low platelets and kidney injury would fit HUS; the stem instead describes a postinfectious neuropathy.

  2. B. Salmonella followed by osteomyelitis (Why this does not fit)

    Focal bone pain and a Salmonella isolate would support this pairing; ascending weakness and the given phenotype do not.

  3. C. Shigella followed by obligatory meningitis (Why this does not fit)

    The phenotype favors Campylobacter, and meningitis is not an obligatory sequel of dysentery.

  4. D. Campylobacter jejuni followed by Guillain-Barré syndrome (Best answer)

    The organism phenotype, exposure and delayed neurologic complication fit this association.

Takeaway: A delayed neurologic syndrome can be immune-mediated rather than ongoing intestinal toxin action.

Case sources: [10]

Case 22

A patient with recurrent urinary infection has persistently alkaline urine and a magnesium ammonium phosphate calculus. Culture grows a swarming Proteus isolate. Which enzyme links the infection to the stone?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Shiga toxin N-glycosidase (Why this does not fit)

    Ribosomal injury is not the mechanism of this infection stone.

  2. B. Heat-labile enterotoxin ADP-ribosyltransferase (Why this does not fit)

    Intestinal cAMP-mediated secretion does not produce this urinary chemistry.

  3. C. Urease (Best answer)

    Urea breakdown generates ammonia and promotes the alkaline conditions favoring struvite formation.

  4. D. Coagulase (Why this does not fit)

    Fibrin formation does not explain alkaline urine or struvite precipitation.

Takeaway: An organism can change its local chemical environment and thereby sustain infection.

Case sources: [22] [24] [8]

Case 23

A 72-year-old with diabetes has severe nocturnal ear pain, persistent drainage and granulation tissue in the external canal despite routine drops. Imaging raises concern for skull-base osteomyelitis. Which organism is a leading concern?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Bacillus cereus emetic toxin (Why this does not fit)

    A preformed food toxin cannot explain progressive local bone involvement.

  2. B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Best answer)

    This host and invasive external-ear pattern strongly suggest necrotizing otitis externa, often caused by Pseudomonas.

  3. C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (Why this does not fit)

    ETEC primarily causes intestinal secretory illness and does not best fit this ear syndrome.

  4. D. Shigella dysenteriae (Why this does not fit)

    Dysentery is the relevant Shigella syndrome, not this typical invasive external-ear infection.

Takeaway: Persistent severe external-ear disease in a vulnerable host needs evaluation for invasion.

Case sources: [11]

Case 24

An adolescent with cystic fibrosis repeatedly grows mucoid Pseudomonas from sputum. What bacterial feature contributes to its persistence in this airway setting?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Alginate-rich extracellular biofilm material (Best answer)

    The mucoid phenotype supports a protected adherent community that complicates eradication.

  2. B. Production of blue-green pyocyanin alone (Why this does not fit)

    Pyocyanin is a pigment and virulence factor, but it does not itself explain the mucoid extracellular matrix.

  3. C. Exotoxin A-mediated inhibition of host protein synthesis alone (Why this does not fit)

    Exotoxin A can injure host cells, but the question asks what accounts for the biofilm-associated mucoid phenotype.

  4. D. Flagellar motility alone (Why this does not fit)

    Motility can influence colonization but does not explain the extracellular material described in this chronic isolate.

Takeaway: Mucoid biofilm helps explain persistence without making Pseudomonas the only CF airway pathogen.

Case sources: [11]

Case 25

Guests develop abrupt vomiting three hours after eating cream-filled pastries handled by a cook with a draining finger lesion. There is little fever and no bloody diarrhea. Which mechanism is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. K1-mediated bacterial spread to the meninges (Why this does not fit)

    There is no neonatal invasive syndrome or meningeal presentation.

  2. B. STEC-associated renal microangiopathy already established in three hours (Why this does not fit)

    That time course and symptom pattern do not fit HUS.

  3. C. Shigella invasion causing prolonged febrile tenesmus (Why this does not fit)

    The abrupt emesis without inflammatory stool symptoms favors a preformed toxin.

  4. D. Ingestion of preformed staphylococcal enterotoxin (Best answer)

    The short incubation, vomiting and food-handling context fit intoxication.

Takeaway: Incubation and symptoms distinguish intoxication from invasive enteritis.

Case sources: [4]

Case 26

A patient with E. coli bacteremia is hypotensive before antibiotics are administered. A student says endotoxin cannot be involved until treatment lyses bacteria. Which correction is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. Withhold antibiotics to prevent all endotoxin signaling (Why this does not fit)

    This leaves a serious invasive infection untreated without eliminating existing inflammatory signaling.

  2. B. Lipid A is a secreted protein that binds nicotinic receptors (Why this does not fit)

    Lipid A is part of LPS and does not have that neuromuscular mechanism.

  3. C. LPS can be released in outer-membrane vesicles, and prompt sepsis treatment remains necessary (Best answer)

    Viable bacteria can deliver LPS; its inflammatory role is not a reason to delay antibiotics.

  4. D. LPS exists only after antibiotic exposure (Why this does not fit)

    It is a structural bacterial component and can be released before therapy.

Takeaway: Endotoxin biology should explain sepsis, not justify undertreating it.

Case sources: [18] [7] [8]

Case 27

An E. coli isolate from a febrile urinary infection expresses P fimbriae, hemolysin and aerobactin. Which pairing correctly matches a virulence factor to its function?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. Hemolysin is the enzyme that generates urinary ammonia from urea (Why this does not fit)

    Urease, not hemolysin, produces that chemical effect.

  2. B. P fimbriae support adhesion; aerobactin supports iron acquisition (Best answer)

    These functions help the organism persist in host tissue through different mechanisms.

  3. C. P fimbriae alone prove the precise anatomical site of infection (Why this does not fit)

    Association with pyelonephritis is not a definitive localization test.

  4. D. Aerobactin depurinates host 28S rRNA (Why this does not fit)

    That describes Shiga toxin, not a siderophore.

Takeaway: Keep adhesion, tissue injury and nutrient acquisition as separate virulence functions.

Case sources: [15]

Case 28

A patient has severe culture-confirmed shigellosis with ongoing dehydration despite oral replacement. Antibiotic treatment is being considered, and a local alert reports fluoroquinolone resistance. Which approach is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 28
  1. A. Provide appropriate fluid support and use susceptibility-guided antibiotic selection (Best answer)

    Severity may justify therapy, but resistance information should guide the agent.

  2. B. Give ciprofloxacin automatically because it was historically common, regardless of the reported local fluoroquinolone resistance (Why this does not fit)

    An old default may be inactive in the current resistance setting.

  3. C. Avoid all antibiotics because every Shigella infection is STEC (Why this does not fit)

    The organisms and treatment considerations are not interchangeable.

  4. D. Use antimotility medication as the sole treatment for dysentery (Why this does not fit)

    Suppressing motility is inappropriate for this inflammatory syndrome and does not address dehydration.

Takeaway: The STEC antibiotic caution cannot be copied unchanged to every dysentery pathogen.

Case sources: [2]

Case 29

A lecture slide states that no vaccine can protect against meningococcal serogroup B because its capsule resembles E. coli K1 and host polysialic acid. Which correction preserves the useful science?

Show answer and explanations for case 29
  1. A. MenB vaccines are purified E. coli K1 capsules (Why this does not fit)

    The available MenB strategy does not rely on that capsule formulation.

  2. B. The shared capsule proves E. coli and meningococcus are the same species and therefore use identical vaccine antigens (Why this does not fit)

    Antigenic similarity does not establish species identity.

  3. C. Host-like capsule chemistry means neither organism can cause disease (Why this does not fit)

    Immune evasion can contribute to invasive disease despite the resemblance.

  4. D. Capsular mimicry explains historical difficulty, but protein-based MenB vaccines are available (Best answer)

    Modern vaccines use other antigens, so the old conclusion about availability is false.

Takeaway: Historical vaccine barriers do not establish current vaccine availability.

Case sources: [16] [17]

Case 30

A person with advanced cystic fibrosis has Burkholderia cepacia complex detected during lung-transplant assessment. The species has not yet been confirmed. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 30
  1. A. The result is harmless because all CF organisms behave like normal flora (Why this does not fit)

    Some Burkholderia species can substantially affect outcomes and require attention.

  2. B. A mucoid appearance proves the isolate must instead be Pseudomonas (Why this does not fit)

    Colony appearance cannot override reliable species identification.

  3. C. Confirm the species and obtain center-specific specialist risk assessment (Best answer)

    Different species and clinical circumstances carry different risks; a broad complex label is insufficient for a universal decision.

  4. D. Every member of the complex creates an identical absolute transplant ban (Why this does not fit)

    Risk and transplant practices are not uniform across the entire group.

Takeaway: Precise organism identification matters when a major clinical decision depends on infection risk.

Case sources: [13] [14]

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