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Psychiatry

Eating disorders

Distinguish eating disorders by behavior and nutrition, recognize medical instability, and connect safe nutritional recovery with effective psychological care.

Two patients describe binge eating and vomiting. One has severe weight loss with fear of gaining weight; the other maintains a stable weight. Their behaviors overlap, but the diagnoses may differ. First reconstruct restriction, loss of control, compensation, and weight trajectory. Then ask whether either patient needs medical stabilization today.

Build the eating history before naming the disorder

A binge involves both an objectively unusually large amount of food within a discrete period and a sense of lost control. Eating more than intended at a celebration is insufficient. Ask what happened, how long it lasted, whether stopping felt possible, and what followed. Compensation includes vomiting, laxative or diuretic misuse, fasting, and driven exercise. Ask directly without assuming that appearance reveals behavior.

Compare the pattern, then assess severity separately

Restriction with significantly low weight

Anorexia nervosa requires restriction producing significantly low weight, fear of gaining weight or persistent behavior preventing gain, and disturbed weight or shape experience, disproportionate influence on self-evaluation, or poor recognition of seriousness. Recurrent binge eating or purging during the last three months identifies the binge-eating/purging subtype.

Binges with compensation

Bulimia nervosa requires recurrent binges and inappropriate compensation, both averaging at least weekly for three months, with self-evaluation overly influenced by weight or shape. The episodes must not occur exclusively during anorexia nervosa.

Binges without regular compensation

Binge-eating disorder requires marked distress, at least weekly binges for three months, and at least three associated features such as rapid eating, uncomfortable fullness, eating without hunger, eating alone from embarrassment, or subsequent disgust, depression, or guilt.

Weight helps interpret anorexia nervosa, but a normal BMI does not automatically establish bulimia nervosa. A person with substantial weight loss and the psychological features of anorexia may have atypical anorexia nervosa within other specified feeding or eating disorder, even at a higher weight. OSFED also includes clinically significant presentations that miss a frequency or duration threshold. Obesity alone does not diagnose BED, and BED can occur without obesity. Amenorrhea is not required for anorexia nervosa. [1] [19]

Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder, or ARFID, involves restriction driven by low interest, sensory characteristics, or fear of consequences such as choking rather than weight or shape concerns. It causes weight or growth problems, nutritional deficiency, supplement dependence, or marked psychosocial interference. Exclude food unavailability, culturally sanctioned practices, and a medical explanation that fully accounts for the restriction. ARFID can be medically severe. [2]

Try it here · Checkpoint 1 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 2

A 24-year-old with stable weight describes objectively large binges with loss of control followed by fasting or vomiting twice weekly for five months. Shape largely determines her self-worth. She has never had significantly low weight. What is the best diagnosis?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. Binge-eating disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Compensatory fasting and vomiting are regular, which distinguishes this from BED.

  2. B. Anorexia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    The required significantly low weight from restriction is absent.

  3. C. Atypical anorexia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    There is no substantial restrictive weight-loss syndrome; normal weight alone does not establish atypical AN.

  4. D. Bulimia nervosa (Best answer)

    The stem supplies recurrent binges, compensation, the weekly three-month threshold and weight-shape overvaluation outside AN.

Takeaway: Ask about fasting and exercise as well as vomiting when assessing compensation.

Case sources: [1] [19]

The body can be unstable at any size

Review the growth curve, recent weight loss, intake, exercise, purging, medications, fainting, chest symptoms, hydration, and suicidality. Obtain temperature, resting and orthostatic vital signs, and a focused examination. ECG and laboratory assessment are guided by presentation and commonly include electrolytes, bicarbonate, renal function, glucose, magnesium, phosphate, and blood count. Normal initial tests do not exclude malnutrition or future refeeding complications.

Starvation reduces energy expenditure. Bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, low triiodothyronine, leukopenia, and fine lanugo hair can accompany restriction. Bradycardia in an undernourished athlete is not automatically benign conditioning. Interpret it with trajectory, orthostasis, symptoms, and ECG. A low T3 starvation pattern does not by itself justify thyroid hormone, which may worsen cardiovascular and bone risk.

Syncope, severe dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, arrhythmia, acute food refusal, serious psychiatric risk, or failure of outpatient care may require hospitalization. For adolescents and young adults, SAHM lists severe bradycardia below 50/min by day or 45/min at night among factors supporting admission. These are assessment supports, not a rule to wait until a pulse reaches 40. Clinical circumstances and available support determine the setting. [2]

Medical stabilization, nutritional rehabilitation, and psychological treatment address different parts of the illness and usually proceed together. Restoration is individualized to age, growth, prior trajectory, and physiology. A universal BMI goal or a single discharge weight cannot replace a recovery plan. Discuss food access, family support, and practical barriers without turning the visit into a moral judgment about eating.

Read vomiting through physiology

Repeated gastric acid loss produces hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Volume depletion promotes renal sodium retention and potassium loss, adding hypokalemia. Diarrhea from laxatives more often causes bicarbonate loss and a non-anion-gap metabolic acidosis, although mixed behaviors and volume depletion can alter the final laboratory pattern. Determine the actual exposure instead of treating every low potassium value as proof of vomiting. [12]

Acid can erode dental enamel, especially the palatal surfaces of upper teeth. Repeated contact of fingers with incisors can produce dorsal knuckle calluses called Russell sign. Painless parotid enlargement and increased salivary amylase may occur. These findings support an eating history but are neither necessary nor sufficient for diagnosis. Increased total amylase without compatible abdominal pain or pancreatic enzyme findings does not establish pancreatitis. Studies support a salivary contribution but do not settle whether binge eating or vomiting is the sole driver. [13] [14]

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia increase electrical instability and can prolong repolarization, particularly with other QT-prolonging medicines. Syncope with electrolyte depletion warrants urgent monitored assessment and correction of all relevant abnormalities. Potassium replacement alone may be ineffective when magnesium remains low. Avoid assigning every eating-disorder death to one electrolyte mechanism. [20] [9]

Retching followed by hematemesis suggests a Mallory-Weiss mucosal tear near the gastroesophageal junction. Severe chest pain, systemic illness, or subcutaneous air after vomiting raises concern for full-thickness esophageal rupture, or Boerhaave syndrome. Both require assessment; the latter is an emergency. Do not reassure a patient about blood loss solely because a mucosal tear is common. [15] [18]

Feed the patient while anticipating intracellular demand

Why a normal initial phosphate can become dangerous
  1. Prolonged undernutrition

    Total body phosphate, potassium, magnesium, and thiamine reserves may be depleted despite initially acceptable serum measurements.

  2. Nutrition resumes

    Insulin promotes intracellular uptake and new energy synthesis. Thiamine demand increases. Monitor fluid balance as nutrition resumes.

  3. Watch the first days

    Falling phosphate impairs ATP-dependent muscle function. Falling potassium and magnesium add arrhythmia risk; edema, weakness, confusion, or respiratory difficulty require immediate reassessment.

Refeeding risk depends on recent intake, weight loss, malnutrition, comorbid illness, and electrolyte history, not just current BMI. Someone with a BMI of 27 after prolonged negligible intake can be at risk. ASPEN's consensus definition considers decreases in phosphate, potassium, or magnesium within five days of calorie reintroduction, with severity related to the size of the decrease and organ dysfunction. Thiamine deficiency can also contribute. [9]

Use a supervised nutritional protocol with baseline and repeated electrolytes, fluid assessment, replacement, and thiamine according to risk. Do not withhold nutrition indefinitely while waiting for a perfect laboratory panel. Equally, do not introduce an aggressive unsupervised regimen in a severely depleted patient. The appropriate setting must provide timely monitoring and treatment. [21]

The old blanket instruction to start every patient extremely slowly is incomplete. A randomized trial at two specialized inpatient centers enrolled patients aged 12 to 24 with AN or atypical AN and at least 60% of median BMI. With close monitoring, starting at 2,000 kcal/day and increasing by 200 kcal/day restored stability sooner than starting at 1,400 kcal/day with increases every other day, without more electrolyte safety events.

These were study regimens, not universal starting prescriptions. This supports specialized protocols, not one calorie prescription for every patient, including patients below 60% of median BMI or with different diagnoses and medical circumstances. [10]

Try it here · Checkpoint 2 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 8

A hospitalized adult with BMI 27 has eaten almost nothing for 18 days during illness. After nutrition resumes, phosphate falls substantially and new weakness develops. Which process best explains the change?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Renal phosphate wasting from proximal tubular dysfunction (Why this does not fit)

    This can lower phosphate but would need supporting renal findings. The immediate relation to nutrition after prolonged depletion favors an intracellular shift.

  2. B. Insulin-driven phosphate uptake into cells during refeeding (Best answer)

    Prolonged inadequate intake depletes reserves; renewed energy synthesis can lower serum phosphate despite a higher BMI.

  3. C. Intracellular phosphate shift from hyperventilation-induced respiratory alkalosis (Why this does not fit)

    Respiratory alkalosis can shift phosphate intracellularly, but no hyperventilation or blood-gas evidence is supplied. The nutritional transition is the stronger explanation.

  4. D. Renal phosphate wasting from increased PTH activity (Why this does not fit)

    The close relationship to resumed nutrition favors refeeding physiology; calcium and PTH findings would be needed for that diagnosis.

Takeaway: Refeeding risk is about depletion and recent intake, not BMI alone.

Case sources: [9] [21]

Energy availability connects reproduction and bone

Low energy availability reduces hypothalamic reproductive signaling. Reduced pulsatile GnRH leads to low or inappropriately normal LH and FSH and reduced estradiol. Low leptin is one signal of depleted energy availability; it is not a stand-alone diagnostic test. Low gonadal hormone levels, nutritional deficits, and other endocrine adaptations impair bone accrual and strength. Adolescence matters because missing expected bone accrual can have lasting consequences.

Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea is a diagnosis of exclusion. Check pregnancy first when relevant, then assess thyroid function, prolactin, gonadotropins, estradiol, and other tests guided by findings. Absence of galactorrhea does not exclude hyperprolactinemia. A low body weight does not exclude coexisting PCOS. Amenorrhea during restriction supports the energy deficit story but cannot replace this evaluation. [6]

Restoring energy availability and an appropriate weight trajectory is central. Calcium and vitamin D adequacy support care but cannot substitute for nutrition. The Endocrine Society suggests a baseline DXA after at least six months of amenorrhea, or earlier when severe nutritional deficiency, another energy-deficit state, or skeletal fragility is suspected. Combined oral contraceptives should not be prescribed solely to regain menses or improve bone density in FHA; withdrawal bleeding can mask persistent hypothalamic suppression.

For adolescents and women whose menses have not returned after a reasonable trial of nutritional, psychological and exercise modification, the guideline conditionally suggests short-term transdermal estradiol with cyclic oral progestin. This requires individualized specialist assessment and does not replace energy restoration. [6]

In children and adolescents, interpret DXA using Z-scores, not adult T-score categories. A Z-score at or below -2 supports low bone mineral density for age. Pediatric osteoporosis generally requires fracture context rather than DXA alone; one or more vertebral compression fractures can establish osteoporosis in the absence of local disease or high-energy trauma. Without a vertebral fracture, ISCD requires both a Z-score at or below -2 and a clinically significant fracture history: at least two long-bone fractures by age 10 or at least three by age 19. Height and maturation affect interpretation. [7]

Choose treatment for the disorder and the person

For medically stable adolescents with anorexia nervosa, family-based treatment is a leading first-line psychological approach. Caregivers temporarily support reliable nutrition, with increasing age-appropriate autonomy as recovery progresses. This approach does not blame the family. Adults require eating-disorder-focused psychotherapy, nutritional rehabilitation, and medical monitoring adapted to individual needs. Admission is appropriate for instability, not a substitute for continuing therapy. [2]

For adults with bulimia nervosa, eating-disorder-focused CBT and, where appropriate, guided self-help address regular eating, rigid rules, shape-based self-evaluation, and the binge-compensation cycle. Fluoxetine has an FDA-labeled bulimia dose of 60 mg daily; a 20 mg depression starting dose should not be mistaken for the studied bulimia dose. Medication complements psychological and nutritional care. For children and young people, NICE recommends bulimia-focused family therapy; individual eating-disorder-focused CBT is an alternative when family therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. [3] [8]

For BED, psychological treatment targets binge frequency, distress, and regular eating. Lisdexamfetamine is FDA-approved for moderate to severe BED in adults, not for obesity or weight loss. Consider cardiovascular status, blood pressure and pulse, sleep, psychiatric history, and misuse risk. A stimulant is neither required for every patient nor an approved pediatric BED treatment. [5] [8]

No medicine replaces nutritional recovery in anorexia nervosa. An adult randomized trial found modest weight benefit from adjunctive olanzapine without a corresponding benefit on the primary obsession measure. It remains an individualized off-label option with adverse-effect monitoring. SSRIs do not reliably restore weight in AN, but the explanation is not a proven universal absence of brain tryptophan. Assess and treat comorbid depression on its own merits. Mirtazapine can increase appetite and weight in depression treatment; that does not establish it as the best treatment for AN. [11] [17]

Bupropion is contraindicated in people with a current or prior diagnosis of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa because of seizure risk. This applies even without current purging. The label does not make BED alone a categorical contraindication, although other seizure risks and contraindications still matter. [4]

Try it here · Checkpoint 3 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 16

A medically stable adult with BN is starting fluoxetine alongside CBT. She asks why her sister's 20 mg depression dose differs from the planned target. Which answer is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. 10 mg daily is the labeled recommended bulimia dose (Why this does not fit)

    A low starting dose may help tolerability, but the labeled recommended BN dose is 60 mg daily.

  2. B. 60 mg daily is the labeled recommended bulimia dose (Best answer)

    The BN trials supporting the label demonstrated benefit at 60 mg; depression starting doses are not interchangeable with disorder-specific targets.

  3. C. 20 mg daily is the labeled recommended bulimia dose (Why this does not fit)

    The label found 60 mg, rather than 20 mg, effective on binge and vomiting frequency in the supporting trials.

  4. D. 80 mg daily is the labeled recommended bulimia dose (Why this does not fit)

    Doses above 60 mg have not been systematically studied for BN in the cited label. Other indications have different dosing limits.

Takeaway: Match the medication regimen to the diagnosis being treated.

Case sources: [3] [8]

Apply the pattern, physiology, and treatment

Case 1

A 19-year-old has lost substantial weight through restriction and now has a BMI of 15.4. She fears weight gain, considers herself overweight, and has binged and induced vomiting twice weekly for four months. Which diagnosis best integrates the findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type (Best answer)

    Significantly low weight from restriction and AN cognitions are present together with recurrent bingeing and purging.

  2. B. Bulimia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    The binge-compensation episodes occur during an anorexia nervosa syndrome, so BN is not the appropriate primary classification.

  3. C. Binge-eating disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Regular vomiting as compensation contradicts BED.

  4. D. ARFID (Why this does not fit)

    Restriction is driven by weight and shape concerns, unlike the defining ARFID pattern.

Takeaway: Bingeing and purging can occur within anorexia nervosa.

Case sources: [1] [19]

Case 3

A 38-year-old reports four months of weekly large, uncontrollable eating episodes. He eats rapidly, continues until painfully full, eats alone because he is embarrassed by the amount, and has marked distress about the binges. He does not purge, fast, or exercise to compensate. Which diagnosis fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Other specified feeding or eating disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The supplied frequency, duration, loss of control, distress and three associated features meet full BED criteria rather than a subthreshold presentation.

  2. B. Anorexia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    There is no restrictive low-weight syndrome or weight-gain avoidance pattern.

  3. C. Binge-eating disorder (Best answer)

    Weekly binges for three months, distress and at least three associated features are present without regular compensation.

  4. D. Bulimia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    Regular compensatory behavior is missing.

Takeaway: BED is a behavioral diagnosis, not a synonym for obesity.

Case sources: [1]

Case 4

A 16-year-old loses 22% of her weight in four months by rigid restriction. Her BMI remains 23. She fears any weight gain and cannot recognize the danger. She has orthostatic dizziness and a resting pulse of 43/min. Which interpretation is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. Clear for routine sports participation; repeat vital signs at the next visit (Why this does not fit)

    Symptomatic bradycardia and rapid restrictive weight loss require urgent assessment before athletic clearance.

  2. B. Possible atypical AN with instability; assess urgently (Best answer)

    AN psychology and major restrictive weight loss can be severe without a low BMI; the vital signs support urgent stabilization assessment.

  3. C. Possible constitutional thinness with athletic conditioning (Why this does not fit)

    This is substantial recent weight loss with restrictive behavior, fear of gain and symptoms, not a stable constitutional pattern.

  4. D. Possible bulimia nervosa with compensatory exercise (Why this does not fit)

    No binge-compensation syndrome is described.

Takeaway: Assess trajectory and physiology rather than using BMI as reassurance.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 5

After a choking episode, a 12-year-old avoids most solids for six months, loses weight, and depends on supplements. He wants to regain weight and has no shape concerns. A swallowing evaluation does not explain the ongoing restriction. Which diagnosis is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. ARFID (Best answer)

    Fear of aversive consequences drives nutritionally consequential restriction without weight-shape concerns.

  2. B. Anorexia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    The defining fear of weight gain or weight-gain-preventing AN cognition is absent.

  3. C. Bulimia nervosa (Why this does not fit)

    There are no recurrent binges or compensation.

  4. D. Ordinary selective eating (Why this does not fit)

    Weight loss and supplement dependence indicate more than a harmless preference.

Takeaway: ARFID can produce serious malnutrition despite an expressed desire to gain weight.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 6

A runner with restrictive eating and eight months of amenorrhea has a negative pregnancy test, normal prolactin and TSH, low estradiol, and low-normal LH and FSH. Which mechanism best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Primary ovarian insufficiency (Why this does not fit)

    Ovarian failure usually produces high gonadotropins in response to low estradiol.

  2. B. Prolactinoma (Why this does not fit)

    The measured prolactin is normal; absence of galactorrhea alone would not have excluded it.

  3. C. Pituitary gonadotropin failure from a structural lesion (Why this does not fit)

    A structural lesion can produce low gonadotropins but is not established here. The clear energy-deficit context favors functional suppression after appropriate exclusion of other causes.

  4. D. Suppressed pulsatile hypothalamic GnRH signaling (Best answer)

    Low energy availability reduces hypothalamic drive, producing low estradiol without an appropriately high gonadotropin response.

Takeaway: Interpret gonadotropins relative to estradiol after excluding other causes.

Case sources: [6]

Case 7

A 21-year-old with weight loss and restriction presents with three months of missed periods. She is sexually active, has no galactorrhea, and has never had an amenorrhea evaluation. Which test belongs first in the workup?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Pituitary MRI (Why this does not fit)

    Imaging depends on findings such as concerning headaches, visual symptoms or laboratory abnormalities, not amenorrhea alone.

  2. B. DXA (Why this does not fit)

    Bone assessment may be appropriate, but it does not establish why menstruation stopped.

  3. C. Pregnancy test (Best answer)

    Pregnancy must be excluded even when hypothalamic suppression seems plausible.

  4. D. Serum prolactin (Why this does not fit)

    Prolactin belongs in the endocrine evaluation, but pregnancy should first be excluded in a sexually active patient with secondary amenorrhea.

Takeaway: A plausible nutritional cause does not eliminate routine diagnostic exclusions.

Case sources: [6]

Case 9

Three days into nutritional rehabilitation, a severely undernourished patient develops respiratory muscle weakness with marked hypophosphatemia and normal calcium. What directly links the electrolyte abnormality to weakness?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Phosphate depletion impairing ATP-dependent muscle function (Best answer)

    Phosphate depletion compromises cellular energy processes and respiratory muscle performance.

  2. B. Magnesium excess impairing transmission at the neuromuscular junction (Why this does not fit)

    No magnesium excess is supplied. The demonstrated phosphate depletion directly compromises cellular energy processes.

  3. C. Primary acetylcholine receptor loss impairing neuromuscular transmission (Why this does not fit)

    The temporal nutritional and biochemical findings support metabolic weakness, not an autoimmune neuromuscular junction disorder.

  4. D. Low calcium causing tetany through increased neuromuscular irritability (Why this does not fit)

    Calcium is normal, and tetany would emphasize neuromuscular irritability rather than the phosphate-linked energy deficit described.

Takeaway: Refeeding complications can impair breathing and require prompt medical response.

Case sources: [9]

Case 10

A patient with recurrent binges and vomiting has painless bilateral parotid enlargement and increased total amylase. There is no abdominal pain, and pancreatic testing is unrevealing. What is the best interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Possible acute pancreatitis causing the elevated amylase (Why this does not fit)

    Total amylase lacks pancreatic specificity, and the clinical syndrome is absent.

  2. B. Possible acute viral parotitis causing the gland enlargement (Why this does not fit)

    An acute painful or infectious syndrome and appropriate testing would be needed; painless chronic enlargement is not diagnostic of mumps.

  3. C. Possible Sjogren syndrome causing the gland enlargement (Why this does not fit)

    Dry eyes, dry mouth and autoimmune evaluation would support that alternative; the supplied pattern does not establish it.

  4. D. Possible salivary contribution to the elevated amylase (Best answer)

    The gland findings and absent pancreatic syndrome support salivary amylase, although the value does not prove a specific eating behavior.

Takeaway: Interpret total amylase in clinical context rather than treating it as pancreas-specific.

Case sources: [13] [14]

Case 11

A 23-year-old who repeatedly induces vomiting has potassium 2.9 mmol/L, chloride 88 mmol/L, and bicarbonate 36 mmol/L. Which mechanism best explains the acid-base pattern?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Why this does not fit)

    Ketoacidosis produces a high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis, not the supplied high bicarbonate pattern.

  2. B. Primary respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation alone (Why this does not fit)

    No hypercapnic respiratory disorder is provided, and repeated gastric loss explains the chloride and potassium pattern.

  3. C. Gastric acid loss with volume depletion and renal potassium wasting (Best answer)

    Loss of hydrochloric acid produces alkalosis; volume-related renal responses contribute to potassium depletion.

  4. D. Diarrheal bicarbonate loss as the sole process (Why this does not fit)

    Isolated bicarbonate loss would usually lower bicarbonate rather than produce this alkalosis.

Takeaway: Vomiting commonly causes hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.

Case sources: [12]

Case 12

During refeeding, a patient faints. ECG shows prolonged repolarization, potassium is 2.6 mmol/L, and magnesium is 1.1 mg/dL. Which response is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Give phosphate replacement and reassess the ECG later (Why this does not fit)

    The measured potassium and magnesium deficits require prompt correction; presumed phosphate depletion cannot substitute for addressing them.

  2. B. Urgent monitored care with correction of potassium and magnesium and review of other risks (Best answer)

    Syncope plus electrical and electrolyte abnormalities requires immediate assessment of interacting contributors, including refeeding and medicines.

  3. C. Replace potassium without addressing magnesium (Why this does not fit)

    Magnesium depletion can sustain renal potassium wasting and electrical risk.

  4. D. Adjust psychiatric medication at a routine outpatient visit (Why this does not fit)

    The current syncope and electrolyte-related ECG abnormality require urgent medical care, not a routine follow-up setting.

Takeaway: Refeeding assessment must include potassium and magnesium as well as phosphate.

Case sources: [2] [9] [20]

Case 13

After repeated retching, a hemodynamically stable patient has a small episode of hematemesis. Endoscopy finds a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastroesophageal junction. What is the diagnosis?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Esophageal varices (Why this does not fit)

    Varices are dilated veins associated with portal hypertension, not the observed linear tear.

  2. B. Barrett esophagus (Why this does not fit)

    Metaplastic epithelium does not describe the acute retching-associated laceration.

  3. C. Peptic ulcer disease (Why this does not fit)

    An ulcer is a different mucosal defect; the observed junctional tear explains this bleeding.

  4. D. Mallory-Weiss tear (Best answer)

    Retching followed by a mucosal laceration at this junction defines the lesion.

  5. E. Boerhaave syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    That is full-thickness rupture, not a lesion limited to mucosa.

Takeaway: Depth of injury separates a mucosal tear from esophageal rupture.

Case sources: [15] [18]

Case 14

A patient develops abrupt severe chest pain and shortness of breath after forceful vomiting. Examination detects subcutaneous air in the neck. What is the priority concern?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Mallory-Weiss tear (Why this does not fit)

    A mucosal tear primarily explains bleeding, not this combination of chest pain and subcutaneous air.

  2. B. Acute coronary syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    ACS is an important chest-pain differential, but cervical subcutaneous air immediately after forceful vomiting particularly raises concern for esophageal rupture.

  3. C. Acute pancreatitis (Why this does not fit)

    Pancreatitis usually presents with abdominal pain and does not best explain the cervical air after vomiting.

  4. D. Full-thickness esophageal rupture (Best answer)

    Pain and extra-luminal air after vomiting suggest Boerhaave syndrome and require emergency evaluation.

Takeaway: Severe chest symptoms after vomiting warrant investigation beyond a mucosal tear.

Case sources: [18]

Case 15

A 17-year-old with AN has a DXA Z-score of -2.3, no vertebral compression fracture, and no clinically significant long-bone fracture history. Which report is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Bone density within the expected range for age (Why this does not fit)

    The low Z-score still identifies an important skeletal deficit.

  2. B. Osteopenia under adult T-score terminology (Why this does not fit)

    Pediatric interpretation uses Z-scores and developmental context.

  3. C. Low bone mineral density for age (Best answer)

    A pediatric Z-score at or below -2 supports this term; density alone does not establish osteoporosis here.

  4. D. Pediatric osteoporosis (Why this does not fit)

    The relevant fracture context is absent.

Takeaway: Do not import adult DXA thresholds into adolescent diagnosis.

Case sources: [7]

Case 17

An adult with moderate to severe BED asks about lisdexamfetamine. Which statement should guide shared treatment planning?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. It is approved for adult BED, with cardiovascular and misuse-risk assessment (Best answer)

    The indication applies to this disorder and severity, but stimulant precautions remain relevant.

  2. B. Its main indication here is weight reduction rather than binge reduction (Why this does not fit)

    The label specifically does not indicate it for weight loss or obesity.

  3. C. Its BED indication extends to adolescents because it is used for pediatric ADHD (Why this does not fit)

    The BED indication is for adults, and treatment is individualized.

  4. D. It is required before an adult can start eating-disorder-focused CBT (Why this does not fit)

    Psychological treatment does not require a prior stimulant trial.

Takeaway: A BED indication is different from a weight-loss indication.

Case sources: [5] [8]

Case 18

A patient with depression has a documented history of restricting-type AN in remission and asks for bupropion. She has never purged. Which interpretation of the label is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. Bupropion is permitted because restriction never involved vomiting (Why this does not fit)

    Purging is not a prerequisite for the AN contraindication.

  2. B. The contraindication applies only while underweight (Why this does not fit)

    The label explicitly includes prior diagnosis, not only current low weight.

  3. C. Every history of BED carries the identical categorical contraindication (Why this does not fit)

    BED alone is not the named AN/BN contraindication, although other seizure risks still matter.

  4. D. Prior AN remains a contraindication (Best answer)

    The contraindication includes current or prior AN, without requiring purging.

Takeaway: Read the actual AN/BN contraindication rather than substituting a purging rule.

Case sources: [4]

Case 19

A patient recovering from AN also has persistent MDD with insomnia. Her psychiatrist considers mirtazapine. Which explanation is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Use mirtazapine as the principal AN treatment before nutritional therapy (Why this does not fit)

    Weight restoration requires a supervised nutritional and psychological plan.

  2. B. Avoid it because prior AN is a labeled contraindication (Why this does not fit)

    The cited bupropion contraindication cannot be transferred to a different drug.

  3. C. Its appetite and sleep effects may inform depression treatment, but it is not established primary AN therapy (Best answer)

    An adverse-effect profile may suit individual depression care without proving treatment of the eating disorder itself.

  4. D. Choose it over olanzapine on established comparative AN weight-restoration efficacy (Why this does not fit)

    There is no supplied comparative evidence establishing mirtazapine superiority for AN. Depression-related adverse effects cannot establish that claim.

Takeaway: A potentially useful medication property is not evidence of disorder-specific superiority.

Case sources: [2] [4] [17]

Case 20

A 15-year-old with recently diagnosed AN has stable vital signs and electrolytes, no acute suicidality, and caregivers able to support meals. What is the best-supported initial psychological approach?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Individual CBT as the preferred first approach despite available family support (Why this does not fit)

    Individual therapies may have roles, especially when FBT is unsuitable, but family-based treatment has particularly strong support for this adolescent AN scenario.

  2. B. Family-based treatment with medical and nutritional follow-up (Best answer)

    FBT is a first-line approach for medically stable adolescents and uses caregivers as recovery supports.

  3. C. Begin inpatient psychotherapy despite current medical and psychiatric stability (Why this does not fit)

    Admission depends on medical and psychiatric needs, not the diagnostic name alone.

  4. D. Begin fluoxetine without a disorder-focused psychotherapy (Why this does not fit)

    Medication alone does not restore nutrition or address the full AN syndrome.

Takeaway: Match the setting to stability and use effective adolescent treatment promptly.

Case sources: [2]

Case 21

An adult outpatient with AN asks whether olanzapine will eliminate her eating-related obsessions. What does the cited randomized trial support?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Modest weight benefit but no demonstrated primary obsession benefit (Best answer)

    The trial supports a limited adjunctive role, with individual risk-benefit discussion.

  2. B. Demonstrated primary obsession benefit but no weight benefit (Why this does not fit)

    The trial found the opposite pattern: a modest BMI benefit without a significant difference on the primary obsession measure.

  3. C. Equivalent weight trajectories but improved obsession scores with olanzapine (Why this does not fit)

    The trial demonstrated a greater BMI increase with olanzapine and no significant primary obsession benefit.

  4. D. Evidence that children under 12 receive the same treatment benefit (Why this does not fit)

    The studied population was adult outpatients, so this pediatric extrapolation is unsupported.

Takeaway: Describe the measured benefit and the limits of the evidence.

Case sources: [11]

Case 22

A 17-year-old with AN at 72% of median BMI is admitted to a specialized unit for medical stabilization. The unit can monitor electrolytes and cardiovascular status and replace deficiencies promptly. A trainee asks whether a higher-calorie protocol has trial support for patients like this. Which conclusion best fits the evidence?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. The same results justify home use without repeated laboratory testing (Why this does not fit)

    The trial's setting and eligibility limit that extrapolation.

  2. B. The trial directly establishes safety below 60% of median BMI (Why this does not fit)

    Patients below 60% of median BMI were excluded; the finding cannot establish safety for that population.

  3. C. A low-calorie start is required because higher-calorie trials did not include AN (Why this does not fit)

    The trial specifically enrolled AN and atypical AN, making this reason for rejecting it incorrect.

  4. D. The trial supports a monitored higher-calorie approach in this population (Best answer)

    The randomized trial enrolled ages 12 to 24 with AN or atypical AN at or above 60% of median BMI in specialist inpatient units. Its findings support a supervised protocol here, with individual risk assessment.

Takeaway: Use evidence within its population and care setting.

Case sources: [2] [9] [10]

Case 23

A 20-year-old with FHA from restriction asks for combined oral contraceptives solely to improve bone density. What should the clinician emphasize?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Use calcium supplementation as the primary treatment for the energy-deficit state (Why this does not fit)

    Adequate calcium supports care but cannot correct persistent low energy availability.

  2. B. Begin a combined oral contraceptive as the primary skeletal treatment (Why this does not fit)

    The guideline suggests against oral contraceptives solely to regain menses or improve BMD in FHA.

  3. C. Correct the energy deficit and assess skeletal risk; the pill alone is not recommended for this purpose (Best answer)

    Nutritional restoration addresses the cause, while withdrawal bleeding can conceal ongoing hypothalamic suppression.

  4. D. Use withdrawal bleeding on the pill to document recovery (Why this does not fit)

    Exogenous hormones can produce bleeding without restored endogenous signaling.

Takeaway: Menstrual bleeding on medication is not equivalent to nutritional or hormonal recovery.

Case sources: [6]

Case 24

A patient with BED wants treatment that addresses loss of control and distress. She has no urgent medical instability and prefers a psychological approach. Which plan best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Begin a restrictive weight-loss program as the first treatment for binge symptoms (Why this does not fit)

    Intentional dieting during BED treatment can trigger further binges. NICE prioritizes regular eating and psychological treatment.

  2. B. Eating-disorder-focused guided self-help or CBT with regular eating work (Best answer)

    These approaches directly address the binge pattern and can be selected according to need and preference.

  3. C. Offer nonspecific weight counseling without assessing binge triggers (Why this does not fit)

    That omits the defining symptoms and the patient's goal.

  4. D. Complete a lisdexamfetamine trial before referring for CBT (Why this does not fit)

    Medication is not a prerequisite for psychological care.

Takeaway: Treat BED's eating pattern and distress rather than making weight the sole outcome.

Case sources: [8]

Case 25

A student presents with palatal enamel erosion and calluses over dorsal finger joints. Weight is stable and electrolytes are currently normal. What is the best next diagnostic action?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Ask without judgment about vomiting, bingeing, restriction and other causes (Best answer)

    The findings suggest possible repeated vomiting, but history and context are required and normal labs do not exclude illness.

  2. B. Assign bulimia nervosa from the examination findings at this visit (Why this does not fit)

    BN additionally requires the specified binge-compensation pattern, duration and self-evaluation features.

  3. C. Document reflux as the explanation for these findings and take no further eating history (Why this does not fit)

    Reflux can contribute to dental erosion, but the combined findings warrant a nonjudgmental eating and vomiting history.

  4. D. Diagnose anorexia nervosa with restriction and significantly low weight (Why this does not fit)

    Neither significantly low weight nor the required restrictive cognition and behavior are established by these signs.

Takeaway: Physical signs should prompt a careful history, not an unsupported diagnosis.

Case sources: [1] [16]

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