⌘ KStart free
0%
Skip to lesson

Psychiatry

Schizophrenia and mood disorders

Use symptoms and a longitudinal timeline to distinguish psychotic and mood disorders, recognize urgent syndromes, and select safe, phase-specific treatment.

A patient hears voices during a manic episode. Another hears voices for months before becoming depressed. The presence of both psychosis and mood symptoms does not automatically mean schizoaffective disorder. Establish the symptom syndrome, draw the course, and determine which symptoms exist independently. Safety and early treatment begin before the final duration-based diagnosis is settled.

Name the experience before naming the disorder

A hallucination is a perception-like experience without an external stimulus. Auditory voices are common in schizophrenia, but modality alone is not diagnostic. An illusion misinterprets an actual stimulus. A delusion is a fixed belief that is not adequately revised despite contrary evidence and is assessed within cultural context. Themes include persecution, grandiosity, a person secretly being in love with the patient, bodily disease or alteration, and personal reference in unrelated events. Thought insertion concerns thoughts experienced as externally placed; thought broadcasting concerns others having access to one's thoughts. [29] [30]

Disorganized speech reflects disrupted organization of thought. Tangential answers never reach the requested point; loose associations have weak or difficult-to-follow connections. Severe incoherence can become word salad. Neologisms are idiosyncratic invented words, and clang associations depend on sound rather than meaning. [31] Odd wording alone, especially across language or cultural differences, does not establish a psychotic disorder.

Positive symptoms add experiences or behavior, including delusions, hallucinations and disorganization. Negative symptoms reduce ordinary function. The five useful domains are diminished emotional expression, alogia or reduced speech, avolition or reduced initiation, anhedonia or reduced pleasure, and asociality or reduced social interest. Attention, working memory, and executive-function difficulties are related cognitive concerns and can affect education, employment and daily tasks. [1]

Before labeling low activity a primary negative symptom, assess depression, sedation, medication-induced parkinsonism, substance effects, social deprivation and ongoing frightening psychosis. A past schizophrenia diagnosis does not rule out a new MDE. Catatonia is also not synonymous with schizophrenia. At least three characteristic psychomotor signs, such as mutism, stupor, posturing, negativism, waxy flexibility, stereotypy, echolalia or echopraxia, support the syndrome. It can accompany mood disorders or medical illness and requires cause and complication assessment. [2] [3]

Try it here · Checkpoint 1 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 9

A patient with schizophrenia answers in very few words, rarely initiates activities, shows little facial expression and reports reduced pleasure and social interest. Which symptom grouping best captures these findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Negative symptom domains (Best answer)

    Alogia, avolition, diminished expression, anhedonia and asociality are reductions in ordinary function.

  2. B. Positive symptoms (Why this does not fit)

    No added hallucinatory, delusional or disorganized experience is described here.

  3. C. Catatonic syndrome (Why this does not fit)

    Catatonia requires a characteristic combination of psychomotor signs, not simply reduced speech.

  4. D. Cognitive symptom domains (Why this does not fit)

    Attention and executive difficulties require assessment beyond reduced affect.

Takeaway: Negative, cognitive and catatonic findings are related clinical concerns but are not interchangeable.

Case sources: [1] [3]

Use the psychosis clock correctly

Schizophrenia requires at least two characteristic symptom domains for a significant part of one month, or less when successfully treated, with at least one domain being delusions, hallucinations or disorganized speech. The other domains are grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior and negative symptoms. There must be significant dysfunction and at least six months of continuous disturbance, including prodromal or residual periods. Two months of active symptoms plus four months of attenuated residual symptoms may meet the duration rule. One bizarre delusion alone no longer creates an exception to the two-domain requirement. [2] [4]

The duration thresholds are different diagnostic questions
  1. At least one day, less than one month

    Brief psychotic disorder requires an appropriate psychotic symptom and eventual full return to prior functioning.

  2. At least one month, less than six months

    Schizophreniform disorder uses schizophrenia's characteristic symptom pattern. Functional decline is not required. Use a provisional designation when the eventual course is unresolved.

  3. At least six months total disturbance

    Schizophrenia adds the required functional decline and active-phase criteria. Not every month must contain full active psychosis.

All require assessment for substances, medication effects, medical conditions, and mood-related explanations. New psychosis with fluctuating attention, altered awareness, fever, neurological findings, or an unusual course should prompt urgent medical evaluation. Obtain the substance and medication timeline rather than assuming age alone identifies a primary psychotic illness. For a patient with autism or childhood communication disorder, prominent delusions or hallucinations for the required active interval are additionally necessary before assigning schizophrenia. [4]

Delusional disorder requires one or more delusions for at least one month, without ever meeting schizophrenia's characteristic symptom criterion. Function outside the delusion's effects is relatively preserved, and behavior is not otherwise obviously disorganized. Hallucinations, if present, are not prominent and relate to the delusional theme. Bizarre content is permitted. Shared delusional beliefs in close associates are assessed individually; folie a deux is a descriptive historical term rather than an automatic separate current DSM diagnosis. [2] [4]

Place mood episodes above the psychosis timeline

First identify full mood episodes, not isolated sadness, irritability or poor sleep. Then ask whether there has ever been at least two weeks of delusions or hallucinations without a major mood episode. Finally compare the duration of full mood episodes with the total active and residual psychotic illness. A longitudinal history from the patient, prior records and appropriate collateral is often essential.

Read three clinical courses from earlier to later

Mood disorder with psychotic features

Well interval → full mood episode with psychosis → both remit. Psychosis occurs only within mood episodes.

Schizophrenia with some mood episodes

Psychotic illness → brief full mood episode during it → psychotic or residual illness continues. Mood episodes occupy a minority of the total illness.

Schizoaffective disorder

Full mood episode overlaps schizophrenia-level symptoms. There is also at least a two-week interval of delusions or hallucinations without a major mood episode. Full mood episodes occupy the majority of the total active and residual illness.

Schizoaffective disorder has no separate universal six-month criterion borrowed from schizophrenia. Its own combined syndrome and longitudinal requirements must be met. During the overlap, the schizophrenia symptom criterion must be satisfied. If the mood episode is depressive, depressed mood must be present. Bipolar type includes mania; depressive type includes only major depressive episodes. Psychosis outside mood episodes is necessary but not sufficient, because the majority-of-illness condition also matters. [2] [4]

For example, nine months of a qualifying psychotic illness with only three weeks of mania generally favors schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder, assuming the remaining criteria and exclusions fit. Conversely, recurrent psychosis only during mania favors bipolar I disorder with psychotic features. Mood-congruent delusional content can help describe an episode but cannot replace this timing analysis. For unipolar depression with psychotic symptoms, NICE advises specialist care and consideration of an antidepressant plus an antipsychotic; discuss preferences and monitor response and adverse effects. An antidepressant alone is an option if the person declines the antipsychotic. [25]

Establish mood polarity and duration

A major depressive episode requires at least five symptom domains in the same two weeks, including depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure. The remaining domains concern sleep, appetite or weight, energy, observable psychomotor change, concentration or decisions, worthlessness or excessive guilt, and recurrent death or suicidal thoughts. Establish change, distress or impairment and exclusions. A previous manic or hypomanic episode changes the diagnostic frame even when the current presentation is depression. [5]

Mania requires abnormally expansive, high or irritable mood and increased activity or energy for at least a week, or any duration if hospitalization is necessary because of the manic syndrome. At least three additional symptoms are needed, or four when mood is only irritable. These include grandiosity, reduced need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, distractibility, increased goal-directed activity or agitation, and risky pursuits. The episode causes marked impairment, requires hospitalization, or includes psychosis. Ordinary insomnia with fatigue is different from sleeping little and feeling rested.

Hypomania lasts at least four consecutive days and represents an unequivocal observable change, but does not cause marked impairment, require hospitalization, or include psychosis. Psychosis rules out hypomania, but a shortened mania duration must still be justified by hospitalization being necessary, rather than assuming any brief psychotic state is bipolar I. Bipolar I requires a manic episode; a depressive episode is not required. Bipolar II requires hypomania and an MDE, with no manic episode. Mixed features describe opposite-polarity symptoms within an episode rather than the obsolete separate DSM-IV mixed-episode category. [6] [2]

Cyclothymic disorder involves numerous periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms below full episode thresholds for at least two years in adults or one year in youth, present at least half the time without gaps exceeding two months. Full manic, hypomanic and major depressive episode criteria have never been met. A later full episode requires reassessment of the diagnosis.

The condition causes distress or impairment and is not simply a harmless temperament. Persistent depressive disorder requires depressed mood most of the day, more days than not, for at least two years in adults or one year in youth, with at least two of appetite change, sleep change, low energy, low self-esteem, concentration or decision difficulty, and hopelessness.

Gaps cannot exceed two months; establish distress or impairment and exclusions. It can include persistent or superimposed major episodes. [4] [22]

Depressive specifiers describe different patterns. Melancholia emphasizes profound loss of pleasure or nonreactivity plus associated biological and psychomotor findings. Atypical features require mood reactivity plus at least two of hypersomnia, increased appetite or weight, leaden paralysis and longstanding impairing rejection sensitivity. The atypical specifier is not assigned when melancholic or catatonic features occur during the same episode.

Neither specifier automatically dictates a TCA or MAOI. [19] The DSM peripartum-onset specifier uses pregnancy or the first four weeks after birth, while clinical perinatal services assess a broader postpartum interval. Psychosis or mania after childbirth requires urgent care regardless of the specifier window. [5] [7]

PMDD requires a recurrent late-luteal pattern with at least five symptoms, including a core affective symptom, improvement shortly after menses begins and minimal symptoms in the postmenstrual week. Confirm with prospective daily ratings over at least two symptomatic cycles. Ongoing depression that merely worsens premenstrually is a different pattern. SSRIs are an evidence-based treatment option and can be given continuously or during the luteal phase.

Selected combined oral contraceptives, particularly the studied drospirenone/ethinyl estradiol 24/4 formulation, may help patients who also desire contraception; benefits are not established equally for every formulation. Review contraindications and patient preferences. [24] Adjustment disorder begins within three months of a stressor, involves disproportionate distress or impairment, and ordinarily resolves within six months after the stressor or consequences end.

Grief often fluctuates around reminders with preserved connection, but can impair function or coexist with MDD. [4] [8]

Try it here · Checkpoint 2 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 16

For three years, an adult has frequent periods of increased energy below hypomanic threshold and low mood below MDE threshold. Symptoms are present more than half the time, with no gap longer than one month, and impair relationships. No full manic, hypomanic or major depressive episode has ever occurred, and substance, medical and psychotic-disorder explanations are excluded. Which diagnosis is supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. Persistent depressive disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Alternating subthreshold high-energy periods and depressive periods, rather than a predominantly chronic depressive syndrome, organize this course.

  2. B. Cyclothymic disorder (Best answer)

    The prolonged alternating subthreshold pattern, limited gaps and impairment fit.

  3. C. Bipolar I disorder (Why this does not fit)

    No manic episode has occurred.

  4. D. Bipolar II disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The required full hypomanic and major depressive episodes are not established.

Takeaway: Cyclothymia is a defined impairing course, not simply ordinary variation.

Case sources: [22]

Treat the phase and support recovery

Schizophrenia has interacting genetic and environmental contributors. Associations with urbanicity, season of birth, and prenatal adversity are population observations, not diagnostic tests or proof of one person's cause. [1] [28] The classic dopamine model associates excessive mesolimbic signaling with positive symptoms and reduced mesocortical or prefrontal signaling with negative and cognitive symptoms. Prefrontal D1 signaling is relevant to working-memory models.

These are explanatory frameworks, not findings proven in every patient. Primary imaging studies and experiments with the NMDA antagonist ketamine support studying dopamine-glutamate interactions without establishing a complete cause. [20] [21] Many antipsychotics affect dopamine D2 signaling, yet the FDA approved the muscarinic-targeting xanomeline/trospium combination for adult schizophrenia in 2024. A universal statement that all effective treatment blocks D2 receptors is outdated. [1] [9]

Offer early psychosis care without waiting six months to help. Coordinated specialty care integrates medication, psychotherapy, family education, case management, and education or employment support. Persistent needs may call for assertive community treatment and practical housing support. Monitor metabolic, neurological, cardiovascular and other adverse effects according to the selected medicine. Recovery goals include agency, relationships and meaningful activity as well as symptom reduction. Cognitive or negative symptoms do not establish inevitable deterioration. [1] [10]

Clozapine is used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia after two adequate unsuccessful antipsychotic trials and has a separate FDA indication for reducing recurrent suicidal behavior in schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder. Its neutropenia, myocarditis, seizure, hypotension and severe constipation risks require active care. The FDA ended the clozapine REMS program in June 2025; ANC monitoring remains recommended according to prescribing information.

For uninterrupted treatment with ANC in the appropriate reference range, the cited label recommends weekly checks through six months, every two weeks during months six to twelve, and monthly thereafter. Low counts or interruptions can require a different schedule; interpret lower baseline counts with the appropriate clinical algorithm. Ending an administrative program did not eliminate biological risk. [11] [12] [13]

Bipolar medication choice depends on acute mania, bipolar depression, or maintenance. Acute mania commonly uses an appropriate antipsychotic and/or a mood stabilizer such as lithium, with selection based on severity and prior response. Lamotrigine has a role in bipolar depression and maintenance, not acute mania. It requires gradual titration and prompt rash assessment. Valproate requires liver and blood-count monitoring and careful reproductive-risk management because of major fetal and neurodevelopmental harms. Antidepressant monotherapy is not an appropriate default for bipolar I depression. [14]

Lithium requires serum-level, renal, thyroid and calcium monitoring, with review of fluid balance and interacting medicines. NSAIDs can reduce renal lithium clearance, increasing toxicity risk; dehydration and renal impairment add risk. New coarse tremor, ataxia, vomiting or confusion warrants urgent assessment, holding further lithium during evaluation and checking levels and kidney function. Interpret the level with timing, symptoms and exposure pattern rather than relying on rigid toxicity bands.

Lithium may have suicide-related benefit in some evidence, but a fixed guaranteed fold reduction is unsupported and randomized evidence has been mixed. The cited trial tested lithium augmentation of usual care in veterans with MDD or bipolar disorder after a recent suicide-related event and did not demonstrate fewer repeat events. This population-specific result does not settle every question about lithium maintenance. [15] [16]

Respond to current danger and treatable emergencies

Ask directly about suicidal thoughts, intent, planning, means, previous behavior, intoxication, psychosis, agitation, supports and reasons for living. A previous attempt is an important finding, not a universal numerical multiplier that determines today's disposition. Demographic mnemonics such as SAD PERSONS should not predict suicide or decide discharge. Structured questions can organize an interview; they cannot replace clinical formulation. [17] [18]

Command hallucinations require questions about the instruction, distress, perceived authority, intention to obey, ability to resist, targets and access to means. Psychosis does not imply that someone is violent. When imminent danger is present, arrange emergency assessment and a protected environment while addressing treatment. Duties concerning threatened others depend on applicable law and local procedures and should be handled concurrently with clinical protection, not reduced to a rigid universal sequence. [26]

For ongoing non-imminent risk, collaborate on warning signs, coping options, supportive contacts, crisis access and reducing access to lethal means. A no-suicide contract is not a safety plan. Arrange follow-up according to needs, with prompt contact after a positive assessment or care transition. Do not discharge on the basis of a low score or a reassuring promise. [17] [18]

Catatonia with poor intake, immobility, autonomic instability or fever can become medically dangerous. Investigate medical causes and complications while treating the syndrome. A lorazepam challenge can support diagnosis and initial treatment, but its response is not perfectly specific. Benzodiazepines and ECT are key treatments; ECT can be an initial urgent option depending on severity and medical circumstances. Simply increasing an antipsychotic without assessing catatonia may worsen some presentations. [3]

Try it here · Checkpoint 3 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 24

After self-harm, a patient has a low score on a demographic risk mnemonic but ongoing suicidal thoughts and unstable housing. Which disposition approach is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Discharge based on the presence of a supportive relationship without completing further assessment (Why this does not fit)

    Supports matter but cannot guarantee an outcome.

  2. B. Guide care with direct psychosocial assessment, current needs and collaborative safety planning (Best answer)

    The concerning current circumstances require formulation and support beyond a numerical score.

  3. C. Base the decision to discharge on the low score obtained using the demographic risk mnemonic (Why this does not fit)

    Guidance explicitly rejects using risk scales to determine discharge.

  4. D. Make a no-suicide contract the principal safeguard supporting the decision to discharge the patient (Why this does not fit)

    A contract does not supply coping actions, contacts, means safety or needed treatment.

Takeaway: Risk scores cannot substitute for an individualized assessment and care plan.

Case sources: [17] [18]

Reconstruct the timeline and choose the next action

Case 1

A 23-year-old has four months of delusions and disorganized speech. Substance, medical and mood-related explanations have been excluded. Symptoms remain active. Which diagnosis best fits the current duration?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. Schizophreniform disorder, provisional (Best answer)

    The characteristic syndrome has lasted at least one month but less than six, and its eventual course remains unresolved.

  2. B. Schizophrenia (Why this does not fit)

    The required six months of continuous disturbance have not yet been established.

  3. C. Brief psychotic disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Four months exceeds the less-than-one-month duration.

  4. D. Delusional disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The combination includes schizophrenia-level disorganized speech rather than a primarily delusional syndrome with relatively preserved organization.

Takeaway: Use the current course honestly while providing treatment now.

Case sources: [4]

Case 2

A previously well adult develops hallucinations and disorganized speech for 12 days, then fully returns to prior functioning. A thorough assessment excludes substances, medical illness and mood episodes. Which diagnosis fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. Schizophreniform disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The disturbance did not last at least one month.

  2. B. Schizophrenia (Why this does not fit)

    The six-month total course is absent.

  3. C. Schizoaffective disorder (Why this does not fit)

    No overlapping major mood episode or requisite longitudinal mood pattern is supplied.

  4. D. Brief psychotic disorder (Best answer)

    The psychosis lasted at least one day but less than one month and resolved with full return to baseline.

Takeaway: Full recovery and the short duration are both important.

Case sources: [4]

Case 3

For eight months, a patient has had continuous disturbance. The first two months included delusions and hallucinations; afterward, attenuated beliefs and negative symptoms persisted. Work and self-care declined, and other causes are excluded. Which diagnosis is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Brief psychotic disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The long residual course and lack of rapid full recovery do not fit.

  2. B. Delusional disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The active hallucinations plus delusions and broad functional decline exceed an isolated delusional syndrome.

  3. C. Schizophrenia (Best answer)

    The active-phase requirement, total six-month disturbance and functional decline are all present.

  4. D. Schizophreniform disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The total illness exceeds its less-than-six-month limit.

Takeaway: The six-month clock includes more than full active psychosis.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 4

A patient has nine months of hallucinations, delusions and marked functional decline. A three-week manic episode occurred during that illness; the remaining months contained no major mood episode. Other causes are excluded. Which diagnosis best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. Schizophreniform disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The illness has lasted beyond six months.

  2. B. Schizophrenia (Best answer)

    Qualifying psychosis dominates the course, while full mood episodes occupy a minority of active and residual illness.

  3. C. Schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type (Why this does not fit)

    The required majority-of-illness mood criterion is not met.

  4. D. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features (Why this does not fit)

    Psychosis is not confined to manic or depressive episodes.

Takeaway: Psychosis outside mood episodes is not sufficient by itself for schizoaffective disorder.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 5

Across 12 months of continuous psychotic illness, a patient has full major depressive episodes with depressed mood for nine months, overlapping delusions and disorganized speech. There is also a documented three-week interval of hallucinations and delusions without a major mood episode. No mania or alternative cause is found. Which diagnosis fits best?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. Schizoaffective disorder, depressive type (Best answer)

    The overlap, independent psychosis interval and majority mood burden are all present without mania.

  2. B. MDD with psychotic features (Why this does not fit)

    Psychosis also occurs outside major mood episodes.

  3. C. Schizophrenia (Why this does not fit)

    Full depressive episodes occupy the majority of the total active and residual course.

  4. D. Schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type (Why this does not fit)

    No manic episode is described.

Takeaway: Check all three longitudinal requirements before choosing schizoaffective disorder.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 6

A patient has had two severe manic episodes with delusions. The delusions began only during each manic episode and resolved as the episode ended; there has never been psychosis outside mood episodes. Which diagnosis is most consistent?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Schizoaffective disorder (Why this does not fit)

    There is no at-least-two-week interval of delusions or hallucinations without a major mood episode.

  2. B. Bipolar II disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Mania excludes bipolar II.

  3. C. Delusional disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The delusions are accounted for by the full manic episodes rather than an independent delusional course.

  4. D. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features (Best answer)

    Mania establishes bipolar I, and psychosis is confined to the mood episodes.

Takeaway: Place psychotic symptoms on the mood timeline before selecting the diagnosis.

Case sources: [4] [6]

Case 7

For two months, an adult has a fixed belief that an insect lives beneath the skin, with occasional related crawling sensations. Function is relatively preserved outside repeated skin consultations. There is no disorganization, broader schizophrenia syndrome, mood episode or medical or substance explanation. Which diagnosis fits best?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. Illness anxiety disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The fixed infestation conviction differs from health anxiety without this delusional certainty.

  2. B. Brief psychotic disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The duration exceeds its less-than-one-month limit.

  3. C. Delusional disorder, somatic type (Best answer)

    A sustained delusion with nonprominent theme-related perceptions and otherwise relatively preserved function fits.

  4. D. Schizophrenia (Why this does not fit)

    The broader characteristic symptom criterion and required course are not supplied.

Takeaway: Assess the prominence and relationship of perceptual symptoms, not merely their presence.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 8

During an interview, a patient insists that strangers can hear his private thoughts directly even though he never says them aloud. What phenomenon is described?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Clang association (Why this does not fit)

    Clang association concerns speech organized by sounds or rhymes, not access to private thoughts.

  2. B. Thought broadcasting (Best answer)

    The patient believes other people have direct access to thoughts that remain unspoken.

  3. C. Thought insertion (Why this does not fit)

    Insertion concerns thoughts experienced as put into the mind by an outside source.

  4. D. Auditory hallucination (Why this does not fit)

    No perception of a voice or sound without a stimulus is described.

Takeaway: Name the specific experience rather than using psychosis as an undifferentiated label.

Case sources: [29] [30] [31] [1]

Case 10

After an antipsychotic dose increase, a patient becomes slowed, less expressive and less active. Examination shows rigidity and reduced arm swing. What is the best next interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Primary negative symptoms explain the new decline (Why this does not fit)

    That would ignore a new medication-linked change.

  2. B. A major depressive episode explains the new decline (Why this does not fit)

    The complete mood syndrome has not been supplied.

  3. C. Interpret the decline as breakthrough psychosis and increase the antipsychotic dose (Why this does not fit)

    Further exposure could worsen medication-related motor effects.

  4. D. Assess drug-induced parkinsonism contributing to apparent negative symptoms (Best answer)

    The temporal dose relationship and motor findings support a potentially treatable secondary cause.

Takeaway: Investigate secondary causes before labeling diminished function as primary negative symptoms.

Case sources: [1] [11]

Case 11

A patient with a mood disorder is mute, maintains a fixed posture and resists passive positioning. Oral intake is failing. Which plan is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Use a lorazepam response to assign a primary mood etiology (Why this does not fit)

    Response can support the syndrome but is not perfectly specific or etiologic proof.

  2. B. Defer consideration of ECT until the patient has completed a prolonged trial of medication treatment (Why this does not fit)

    Life-threatening severity can justify earlier ECT.

  3. C. Urgently assess catatonia and medical complications; give lorazepam and/or ECT as indicated (Best answer)

    Several characteristic signs plus nutritional compromise require prompt syndrome treatment and cause assessment.

  4. D. Treat the mutism and fixed posture as depressive slowing without conducting a catatonia assessment (Why this does not fit)

    Catatonia occurs in mood and medical disorders as well.

Takeaway: Catatonia requires parallel medical support and syndrome-specific treatment.

Case sources: [3]

Case 12

For three weeks, a patient has depressed mood, loss of interest, insomnia, low energy, excessive guilt and poor concentration with missed work. No prior mania or hypomania, psychosis, substance effect or explanatory medical condition is found. What diagnosis is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Adjustment disorder (Why this does not fit)

    A full depressive syndrome is not replaced by adjustment disorder when a stressor exists.

  2. B. Major depressive disorder (Best answer)

    At least five episode domains, core symptoms, duration, impairment and appropriate exclusions are supplied.

  3. C. Persistent depressive disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Three weeks does not establish a chronic two-year adult course.

  4. D. Bipolar II disorder (Why this does not fit)

    No hypomanic episode is established.

Takeaway: An episode diagnosis requires a coherent clinical syndrome rather than a mnemonic fragment.

Case sources: [5]

Case 13

A patient has five days of expansive mood, increased energy, grandiosity, pressured speech, racing thoughts and little sleep without fatigue. Dangerous behavior makes hospitalization necessary because of the manic syndrome. Other causes are excluded. Which interpretation is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. A manic episode can be diagnosed before the seven-day threshold (Best answer)

    Hospitalization necessary for the manic syndrome permits the shortened duration when other criteria fit.

  2. B. The five-day duration makes this a hypomanic episode (Why this does not fit)

    Marked severity requiring hospitalization is inconsistent with hypomania.

  3. C. Mania cannot be diagnosed until symptoms have lasted at least seven full days (Why this does not fit)

    The necessary-hospitalization exception applies here.

  4. D. This current episode establishes a diagnosis of bipolar II disorder (Why this does not fit)

    A manic episode supports bipolar I rather than bipolar II.

Takeaway: Apply the hospitalization exception to the syndrome that made admission necessary.

Case sources: [6]

Case 14

A patient has four days of increased energy and irritable mood with several manic symptoms and a fixed grandiose delusion. The need for hospitalization has not yet been assessed. Which statement is most accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Use hypomania as the diagnosis based on the four-day duration (Why this does not fit)

    Psychotic features rule out hypomania.

  2. B. Diagnose bipolar I disorder from the presence of psychosis without assessing other criteria or alternative causes (Why this does not fit)

    Other disorders, substances, medical causes and mania criteria still require assessment.

  3. C. Observe until the duration threshold is reached before assessing safety in this brief psychotic presentation (Why this does not fit)

    Urgent clinical needs do not depend on completion of a duration threshold.

  4. D. Psychosis rules out hypomania; assess mania criteria and the hospitalization-related duration exception (Best answer)

    The presentation requires urgent evaluation without assuming that every brief psychotic state meets mania criteria.

Takeaway: Do not confuse excluding hypomania with automatically proving mania.

Case sources: [4] [6]

Case 15

A patient has a past six-day period of abnormally elevated mood and increased energy present most of the day, nearly every day, with reduced need for sleep, pressured speech and increased goal-directed activity. Others observed an unequivocal change from her usual functioning, without marked impairment, hospitalization or psychosis. She now meets full MDE criteria and has never had mania. Substance, medication, medical and psychotic-disorder explanations are excluded. Which diagnosis fits best?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. MDD alone (Why this does not fit)

    A qualifying hypomanic history changes the diagnosis from unipolar MDD.

  2. B. Cyclothymic disorder (Why this does not fit)

    The presence of a full MDE and the supplied episode pattern favor bipolar II rather than a solely subthreshold initial course.

  3. C. Bipolar II disorder (Best answer)

    The history supports hypomania plus a major depressive episode and no manic episode.

  4. D. Bipolar I disorder (Why this does not fit)

    A manic episode has not been established.

Takeaway: A careful past-energy and sleep history can change the interpretation of current depression.

Case sources: [4] [27] [22]

Case 17

An adult has depressed mood most of the day, more days than not for four years, low self-esteem and poor concentration, with no gap over two months. During the last four months he also meets full MDE criteria. The course causes impairment. There has never been mania or hypomania, and substance, medical and psychotic-disorder explanations are excluded. What is the best interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Persistent depressive disorder can include a current major depressive episode (Best answer)

    The chronic course and current full episode are compatible.

  2. B. A current MDE replaces the persistent depressive course diagnosis (Why this does not fit)

    Current classification includes chronic major depression and superimposed episodes.

  3. C. The increase in depressive severity establishes a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder (Why this does not fit)

    Severity increase without mania does not establish bipolar I.

  4. D. The variation in depressive severity establishes a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder (Why this does not fit)

    No alternating hypomanic-symptom pattern is supplied.

Takeaway: Chronic depression and a full major episode are not mutually exclusive.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Case 18

A patient reports marked irritability, affective lability, anxiety, fatigue, poor concentration and bloating during the week before menses, with minimal symptoms afterward. The pattern causes missed work. What best confirms a suspected PMDD pattern?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. A single retrospective symptom inventory (Why this does not fit)

    Recall supports suspicion but does not replace prospective confirmation.

  2. B. A midluteal progesterone concentration (Why this does not fit)

    PMDD diagnosis depends on symptom timing and impact rather than one hormone measurement.

  3. C. A bipolar screening questionnaire alone (Why this does not fit)

    The supplied cycle-linked symptoms do not establish distinct bipolar mood episodes.

  4. D. Prospective daily symptom ratings over at least two symptomatic cycles (Best answer)

    Daily recording establishes cyclic timing and distinguishes PMDD from an ongoing disorder with premenstrual worsening.

Takeaway: Confirm the relationship to the menstrual cycle rather than inferring it from a single visit.

Case sources: [4] [8]

Case 19

Four months after a sibling's death, a patient has sadness around reminders but still enjoys a support group and maintains basic responsibilities. The interview does not establish an MDE, PGD or current safety danger. What is the best plan?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Start antidepressant treatment for an established MDE (Why this does not fit)

    The necessary episode symptom pattern has not been established.

  2. B. Refer for a PGD-specific treatment course as the established diagnosis (Why this does not fit)

    Neither the adult time threshold nor the full PGD syndrome is established. Support remains appropriate.

  3. C. Offer grief support and reassess according to symptoms and function (Best answer)

    Loss-centered distress without another established syndrome can be supported without imposing a pathological timetable.

  4. D. Classify the four-month grief course as an adult PGD diagnosis (Why this does not fit)

    The adult DSM-5-TR time threshold and full syndrome are not met.

Takeaway: Grief care is guided by experience and need, not a deadline for feeling better.

Case sources: [5] [17] [23]

Case 20

A patient with acute mania requires medication treatment. A trainee proposes lamotrigine alone because it is used in bipolar disorder. Which response is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Continue lamotrigine alone for treatment of the current acute manic episode (Why this does not fit)

    Evidence and risks for bipolar medications differ across illness phases; lamotrigine is not recommended for acute mania.

  2. B. Use an acute antimanic agent; lamotrigine is not recommended for mania (Best answer)

    Its bipolar depression or maintenance role does not establish acute antimanic efficacy.

  3. C. Increase lamotrigine rapidly to achieve symptom control during the acute manic episode (Why this does not fit)

    Rapid titration increases serious rash risk and does not solve the phase mismatch.

  4. D. Begin antidepressant monotherapy for treatment of the current acute manic episode (Why this does not fit)

    That is not appropriate treatment for acute mania.

Takeaway: Select treatment for the current phase and respect drug-specific safety requirements.

Case sources: [14]

Case 21

A patient stable on lithium begins frequent ibuprofen use and becomes dehydrated during gastroenteritis. New vomiting, coarse tremor, ataxia and confusion appear; lithium concentration is 2.4 mEq/L. What is the best response?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Hold lithium; urgently assess toxicity, renal function and fluid status (Best answer)

    Symptoms and exposure changes support clinically significant toxicity; NSAIDs can reduce lithium clearance.

  2. B. Continue lithium and recheck the level at the next routine visit (Why this does not fit)

    A rigid numerical band cannot override this symptomatic presentation.

  3. C. Make a small lithium dose reduction and continue ibuprofen without arranging urgent assessment (Why this does not fit)

    A dose adjustment alone is inadequate for symptomatic toxicity with ataxia and confusion. The NSAID and dehydration contribute to reduced clearance.

  4. D. Attribute the presentation solely to gastroenteritis and maintain the current lithium regimen (Why this does not fit)

    Ataxia and confusion with a raised level require medical evaluation.

Takeaway: Interpret lithium levels with symptoms, renal physiology and the exposure timeline.

Case sources: [15]

Case 22

A patient with schizophrenia and recurrent suicidal behavior is considering clozapine in 2026. Which statement is accurate?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Continue clozapine without routine ANC monitoring after REMS removal (Why this does not fit)

    Removal did not eliminate the known adverse effect.

  2. B. Require REMS enrollment before dispensing (Why this does not fit)

    The FDA ended the program in June 2025.

  3. C. Limit clozapine eligibility to treatment resistance without considering recurrent suicidality (Why this does not fit)

    The FDA label has a separate recurrent-suicidal-behavior indication in schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder.

  4. D. Clozapine has a recurrent-suicidal-behavior indication; ANC monitoring remains recommended despite REMS removal (Best answer)

    The therapeutic indication and biological monitoring requirements remain relevant after the administrative program ended.

Takeaway: Separate program requirements from clinical monitoring and treatment indications.

Case sources: [12] [13]

Case 23

A patient hears a voice commanding harm to a named person, says he may obey and has access to a weapon. What is the immediate clinical priority?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Complete decisions about notifying others before arranging an emergency clinical assessment (Why this does not fit)

    Immediate clinical safety measures should proceed while applicable duties are addressed.

  2. B. Obtain a verbal commitment to resist the command and continue with routine clinical follow-up (Why this does not fit)

    A promise does not adequately address the imminent threat described.

  3. C. Arrange emergency protection and assessment; address access to means and applicable duties (Best answer)

    Current intent, target and access establish an urgent safety concern requiring concurrent clinical action.

  4. D. Increase the outpatient antipsychotic dose and schedule a review of the response for next week (Why this does not fit)

    Medication treatment may be needed, but it does not provide immediate protection against the stated weapon-access threat.

Takeaway: Assess commands concretely and respond to the actual danger.

Case sources: [26]

Case 25

Two closely associated adults present with the same fixed persecutory belief. One has longstanding psychosis; the other recently adopted the belief and has not yet had an independent assessment. What is the best diagnostic approach?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Assess each person for psychotic disorders, illness course and alternative causes (Best answer)

    Shared content does not automatically determine either person's modern diagnostic classification.

  2. B. Assign shared psychotic disorder to both people as a separate category in the current DSM (Why this does not fit)

    Folie a deux is a historical descriptor, not an automatic separate current category.

  3. C. Assign schizophrenia to the second person on the shared belief alone (Why this does not fit)

    The required symptom domains, duration and exclusions have not been established.

  4. D. Classify the belief as culturally normative on the basis that these two associated people share it (Why this does not fit)

    Two associated people sharing a belief is not sufficient evidence that it is culturally normative or factually supported.

Takeaway: A shared belief still requires an individual diagnostic history.

Case sources: [2] [4]

Search Bone Wizardry

Quick links