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Cardiology

Cardiomyopathies. Shape, tissue and clinical decisions

Compare cardiomyopathy patterns, identify inherited and acquired causes, interpret imaging, and choose current treatments through complete clinical cases.

An ejection fraction, or EF, of 65% does not guarantee a healthy heart. A small, stiff ventricle may eject a normal fraction of an inadequate filling volume. Start with chamber shape, filling and tissue, then ask what disease produced that pattern.

Describe the heart before naming its cause

The familiar comparison is useful if it stays flexible. Dilated cardiomyopathy features LV dilation and systolic dysfunction. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy features unexplained ventricular thickening. Restrictive physiology limits filling and raises atrial pressure. These are descriptions, not mutually exclusive lifelong boxes. A patient can progress from a thick-walled phenotype to systolic failure. [1]

Fraction ejected is not volume delivered

Dilated example

End-diastolic volume 200 mL

Stroke volume 60 mL

EF 30%

A large chamber ejects a small fraction.

Small-cavity example

End-diastolic volume 60 mL

Stroke volume 39 mL

EF 65%

The fraction is preserved, but the volume is smaller.

Calculate ejection fraction from the stated volumes. EF equals stroke volume divided by end-diastolic volume. Cardiac output also depends on heart rate, and regurgitation can reduce effective forward output.

Look beyond the three classic shapes. The 2023 ESC framework also recognizes arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy and nondilated LV cardiomyopathy, where scar or systolic dysfunction can exist before LV enlargement. Restrictive physiology can occur in infiltrative disease with increased wall thickness, although the strict restrictive morphological category has normal wall thickness. Preserve the difference between physiology and phenotype. [24] [36]

Assess blood pressure, valve disease, coronary disease and congenital lesions that could explain the appearance. Global hypokinesis does not rule out ischemic disease, and regional dysfunction does not prove it. ECG and rhythm monitoring describe electrical disease; echo describes anatomy and loading; CMR adds tissue characterization. Family history, medicines, alcohol exposure, pregnancy timing and extracardiac findings direct further testing. [1]

The useful question is not just which shape. It is which cause, which complication and which treatment the patient needs.

Try it here · Checkpoint 1 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 36

A 29-year-old woman 5 weeks postpartum develops 10 days of orthopnea and leg edema. Blood pressure is 112/70 mmHg, oxygen saturation 92%, and bibasilar crackles are present. Echo shows global LV dysfunction with EF 27%, without major valve disease. Evaluation finds no alternate cause. Which diagnosis is most likely?

Show answer and explanations for case 36
  1. A. Pulmonary embolism causing isolated RV failure (Why this does not fit)

    Postpartum embolism is an important alternative, but isolated RV strain would not explain the demonstrated global LV systolic dysfunction after assessment for other causes.

  2. B. Hypertensive pulmonary edema with preserved EF (Why this does not fit)

    Her blood pressure is not elevated and LV EF is markedly reduced, so this alternative does not match the hemodynamic and imaging findings.

  3. C. Previously established dilated cardiomyopathy worsening postpartum (Why this does not fit)

    Known antecedent DCM would be an alternative cause, but the evaluation identifies no prior explanatory disease. Otherwise unexplained new systolic HF near delivery fits PPCM.

  4. D. Peripartum cardiomyopathy (Best answer)

    Otherwise unexplained HF with reduced EF near pregnancy or postpartum fits PPCM. Medication and device choices require pregnancy/lactation context.

Takeaway: Postpartum dyspnea with objective LV dysfunction deserves cardiac evaluation, not attribution to normal recovery.

Case sources: [11]

A thick ventricle may obstruct, stiffen or both

Establish HCM without relying on a ratio

Adult HCM generally involves maximal end-diastolic wall thickness of at least 15 mm that loading conditions cannot explain. Thickness of 13 to 14 mm can be diagnostic with an established pathogenic or likely pathogenic variant or an affected family member, after assessing other causes. Pediatric assessment uses body-size-adjusted criteria. A septal-to-posterior-wall ratio alone is not diagnostic, and HCM can be apical or relatively concentric rather than asymmetric septal. [31]

MYH7 and MYBPC3 are common sarcomeric genes. Myocyte hypertrophy, disarray and fibrosis can impair relaxation and create an arrhythmic substrate. Autosomal dominant inheritance is common, but penetrance and expression vary. A normal examination in one parent or a negative genetic panel does not exclude HCM. Do not assign a universal de novo percentage or predict a patient's prognosis from the gene name alone. [1] [2]

Obstruction depends on anatomy and loading

With susceptible septal and mitral apparatus anatomy, systolic flow forces bring the anterior mitral leaflet toward the septum. This is systolic anterior motion, or SAM. The resulting LV outflow tract obstruction is dynamic, and accompanying MR can add to symptoms. A small cavity, stronger contraction or reduced vascular resistance can worsen the gradient. A Venturi suction analogy alone does not capture the full mitral and ventricular geometry. [26]

Predict the obstruction from the cavity

Less filling

Standing, Valsalva strain or dehydration

↓

Smaller LV cavity

↓

More leaflet-septal interaction and often a larger gradient

More filling or resistance

Leg raising, squatting or increased afterload

↓

More cavity volume maintained during contraction

↓

Usually less dynamic obstruction

Handgrip primarily increases afterload. The figure describes dynamic obstruction, not every cause of heart failure.

A resting or provoked LVOT gradient of at least 30 mmHg identifies obstruction. A gradient of at least 50 mmHg is the usual threshold relevant to advanced obstruction treatment in a symptomatic patient. If resting testing does not show a sufficient gradient, provocation and exercise echo can expose it. A high EF does not exclude severe symptoms. [2]

Obstructive HCM often produces a left parasternal systolic ejection murmur, sometimes with an S4 or bisferiens arterial pulse. AS more typically gives a neck-transmitted ejection sound with delayed carotid upstroke. MVP can also intensify with reduced LV volume, but its click occurs earlier and the late systolic murmur lengthens. No single maneuver proves HCM. [23]

Treat symptoms and sudden-death risk separately

A nonvasodilating beta blocker is first-line treatment for symptomatic obstruction. Verapamil or diltiazem can substitute when appropriate, but verapamil is unsuitable with hypotension, severe resting symptoms or very high resting gradients. Persistent symptoms warrant specialist discussion of a cardiac myosin inhibitor, disopyramide or septal reduction. Myectomy removes obstructing tissue; alcohol septal ablation creates a targeted septal infarction and later scar, with heart block among its risks. Selection depends on anatomy and clinical circumstances. [2]

Mavacamten reduces myosin participation in force generation and favors the energy-sparing super-relaxed state. It does not shift myosin out of that state. The US indication is adults with symptomatic NYHA class II or III obstructive HCM. Initiation is not recommended if EF is below 55%; echo monitoring and interruption if EF falls below 50% are required.

Pregnancy risk and interacting medicines also require label-specific assessment. Aficamten is another FDA-approved option for symptomatic obstructive HCM in adults. Both can cause systolic dysfunction; use each drug's own interaction and monitoring instructions. Myosin inhibitors are not a general treatment for all thick-walled hearts. [5] [6]

Avoid reflex positive inotropy or substantial preload reduction in obstructive physiology. Digoxin, nitrates and aggressive diuresis can worsen the gradient. Small diuretic doses may still be appropriate for documented congestion. Monitored hypotension may require volume assessment and a vasoconstrictor without inotropic activity, such as phenylephrine. [2]

Prior cardiac arrest or sustained VT strongly supports an ICD. Primary prevention considers the whole risk profile, including suspected cardiac syncope, family history, major hypertrophy, apical aneurysm, LV dysfunction, rhythm findings and CMR scar. Symptom improvement does not replace risk assessment. Clinical AF in HCM warrants anticoagulation independent of the usual stroke-score threshold. Rate control can use a beta blocker, verapamil or diltiazem when tolerated and appropriate to the hemodynamics; poorly tolerated AF may warrant rhythm control with cardioversion or specialist-selected medication.

Avoid reflex digoxin use when obstruction is present. Mild to moderate recreational exercise is encouraged; competitive activity requires expert assessment and shared decisions rather than universal exclusion. [2]

A dilated heart needs a cause search and complete therapy

DCM requires LV dilation with impaired systolic performance not fully explained by another loading or coronary condition. Four-chamber enlargement and thin walls can occur but are not required. A displaced apex, S3, functional MR/TR and congestion fit a remodeled ventricle. S3 occurs during early rapid filling; an S4 reflects atrial contraction into a stiff ventricle and requires organized atrial activity. Neither is a stand-alone phenotype test. Slow flow, scar and dilation create risks of thrombus and arrhythmia, but anticoagulation is not automatic for every patient in sinus rhythm. [1] [3]

Inherited structure

TTN truncating variants are a common genetic cause. LMNA disease can announce itself with conduction block or ventricular arrhythmia before marked EF decline. Dystrophin deficiency damages cardiomyocyte structural support and causes progressive fibrosis. Family screening matters even when exposure to alcohol or pregnancy appears to explain the presentation. [1] [16]

Acquired injury

Alcohol toxicity, inflammatory myocarditis, cancer treatment and persistent tachyarrhythmia can impair contraction. A viral prodrome does not identify Coxsackie B or prove a viral etiology. CMR helps assess inflammation; biopsy is selective, especially when identifying a treatable subtype would change management. [18]

Alcohol abstinence and nutritional correction can allow improvement, but recovery is not guaranteed. Thiamine deficiency can produce high-output failure through vasodilation and impaired metabolism, which differs from typical alcohol-related low-output DCM. Give thiamine promptly when deficiency is suspected; emergency glucose for hypoglycemia should not be delayed. Treat reversible contributors alongside HF therapy. [27] [28]

Doxorubicin can cause cumulative myocardial injury involving oxidative and DNA damage. Trastuzumab blocks HER2 signaling and can reduce EF; cardiac-specific HER2 deletion in mice supports a protective role for this pathway, although that experiment does not determine human treatment decisions. [38] [39] The old division into always irreversible anthracycline injury and always reversible trastuzumab dysfunction is too rigid. Surveillance, cardioprotective treatment and interruption or continuation decisions belong to a cardio-oncology plan. Dexrazoxane can provide cardioprotection in selected anthracycline settings. [10]

Chronic Chagas disease can cause right bundle branch block with left anterior fascicular block, ventricular dysfunction, apical aneurysm and thrombus. None of these alone proves infection. Antiparasitic treatment decisions depend on disease stage; established structural damage does not reliably reverse with parasite treatment. [14]

Scar-related sustained monomorphic VT usually reflects reentry through surviving myocardial bundles interspersed with fibrosis. Slow conduction and areas of block permit a circulating impulse. Dense scar itself does not conduct the circuit; the surviving tissue around and within scar does. This substrate can persist despite improved symptoms or EF. [32]

The HFrEF foundation has four classes

  1. ARNI, or ACE inhibitor/ARB when ARNI is unsuitable.
  2. An evidence-based beta blocker.
  3. A mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist when renal function and potassium permit.
  4. An SGLT2 inhibitor, including in patients without diabetes.

Loop diuretics relieve congestion but do not replace these disease-modifying classes. Initiation and dose adjustment depend on clinical stability, blood pressure, kidney function and potassium. Selected symptomatic patients with EF at most 35% despite appropriate therapy and meaningful expected survival beyond a year benefit from primary-prevention ICD assessment. CRT is particularly effective with EF at most 35%, LBBB and QRS at least 150 ms in the appropriate symptomatic patient. Genetic risk can justify specialist ICD consideration at higher EF. [1] Refer advanced, refractory HF for advanced-therapy assessment. [3]

Improved EF often means remission. Continue indicated therapy rather than declaring the cardiomyopathy cured. TRED-HF documented frequent relapse after supervised withdrawal in recovered DCM. [17]

Find what is making filling difficult

Restrictive physiology raises filling pressure despite normal or small ventricular cavities. The atria often enlarge as pressure accumulates upstream. EF may initially be preserved and later decline; longitudinal contraction can already be impaired while EF looks normal. Kussmaul sign, a rise in jugular venous pressure with inspiration, signals impaired right-sided filling but is not unique to myocardial restriction. [1] [19]

Amyloid suspicion is not amyloid typing

Cardiac amyloidosis is usually AL or ATTR, not predominantly AL and AA. ATTR can involve wild-type or variant transthyretin. Thick walls with unexpectedly low ECG voltage, conduction disease, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy or unexplained HF can raise suspicion. Normal voltage does not exclude it. Apical sparing on strain is supportive, not a stand-alone diagnosis; a granular echo appearance is nonspecific. [4]

Suspect amyloid → obtain an assay for serum free light chains plus serum and urine immunofixation. Ordinary protein electrophoresis alone is inadequate.

Monoclonal testing abnormal → specialist evaluation and tissue confirmation with reliable amyloid typing. A positive bone scan cannot by itself establish ATTR in this branch. Kidney dysfunction can alter the ratio of kappa to lambda free light chains, so interpretation needs context.

Monoclonal screen negative → appropriate bone-tracer scintigraphy, including SPECT confirmation of myocardial uptake, can establish ATTR with compatible imaging and grade 2 or 3 uptake. TTR genetic testing then distinguishes hereditary from wild-type disease.

Congo red with characteristic birefringence supports tissue amyloid, but protein typing determines therapy. AL requires prompt hematology-directed treatment. Tafamidis and acoramidis stabilize TTR; vutrisiran reduces hepatic TTR synthesis and has a US ATTR-CM indication. It also lowers circulating vitamin A, requiring recommended supplementation. These are not interchangeable with plasma-cell therapy for AL. [4] [7] [8]

Other causes leave different evidence

  • Sarcoidosis can produce inflammatory injury, patchy scar, AV block and VT. It is not restricted to a restrictive phenotype. CMR and FDG-PET answer complementary questions about scar and active inflammation; no single scar pattern is diagnostic. [9]
  • Iron overload can cause restrictive or dilated physiology. Transferrin saturation and ferritin assess systemic iron; cardiac MRI evaluates myocardial iron. Diabetes, liver disease and skin pigmentation can accompany systemic overload but are not required. When tissue is examined, Perls Prussian blue staining demonstrates iron deposits; a liver stain alone does not establish cardiac iron burden. [37] Phlebotomy is usual treatment for suitable hereditary hemochromatosis. When phlebotomy is unsuitable, chelation may be considered after specialist risk-benefit assessment; life-threatening cardiac iron overload is a particular setting. EASL grades this as a weak recommendation supported by limited evidence. [13]
  • Eosinophilic disease can injure endomyocardium, promote mural thrombus and ultimately produce apical fibrosis or obliteration. Necrotic, thrombotic and fibrotic phases may overlap. Treat the eosinophilic cause and the cardiac complications. [20]
  • Radiation and systemic sclerosis can cause myocardial fibrosis. Systemic sclerosis can also cause pulmonary hypertension, renal crisis or pericardial disease; do not call every cardiac problem primary myocardial fibrosis. [10] [21]

Fabry disease is a hypertrophic phenocopy caused by deficient alpha-galactosidase A activity and glycosphingolipid accumulation. Burning extremity pain, angiokeratomas, renal disease and LV thickening suggest it. Women can have substantial disease. Enzyme replacement or a suitable variant-specific chaperone addresses the cause. Fabry is an X-linked GLA disorder with globotriaosylceramide accumulation. Pompe disease is an autosomal recessive GAA deficiency with lysosomal glycogen accumulation; cardiomyopathy is characteristic of infantile disease, while later presentations more often emphasize skeletal and respiratory weakness.

Danon disease is an X-linked LAMP2-associated vacuolar myopathy, often with marked hypertrophy and pre-excitation in young males; females can have hypertrophic or dilated disease. Friedreich ataxia is a distinct FXN-related frataxin deficiency that impairs mitochondrial function and can combine progressive ataxia with cardiomyopathy. [33] [34] [35] [15] [1]

Try it here · Checkpoint 2 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 23

A 77-year-old man has compatible cardiac imaging, a negative complete monoclonal screen and grade 3 PYP myocardial uptake confirmed with SPECT. A nonbiopsy diagnosis of ATTR-CM is established. Which test distinguishes hereditary from wild-type disease?

Show answer and explanations for case 23
  1. A. Use the absence of affected relatives as the deciding test (Why this does not fit)

    Hereditary ATTR can have late onset and variable expression, so an apparently negative family history does not establish wild-type disease.

  2. B. Congo red staining without protein or genetic analysis (Why this does not fit)

    Staining detects amyloid but cannot distinguish wild-type from variant TTR.

  3. C. TTR genetic testing with counseling (Best answer)

    A pathogenic TTR variant establishes hereditary ATTR and informs family assessment.

  4. D. Use the intensity of PYP uptake to identify a hereditary variant (Why this does not fit)

    Uptake supports cardiac ATTR in the appropriate diagnostic pathway but does not determine the TTR genotype.

Takeaway: Age and a positive PYP scan cannot independently establish wild-type ATTR.

Case sources: [4]

Resolve the lookalike before choosing treatment

Restriction versus constriction

Restriction is a myocardial filling problem. Constriction is a pericardial constraint with exaggerated ventricular interdependence. Both may cause edema, ascites and Kussmaul sign. In constriction, respiratory septal shift, preserved medial mitral annular e′ and expiratory hepatic vein diastolic flow reversal are useful together. Restrictive myocardial disease more often reduces annular relaxation velocities. Pericardial thickening supports constriction but its absence does not exclude it. BNP is not a binary separator, particularly with renal disease or mixed pathology. [19] [29] [30]

Athlete adaptation versus inherited disease

An enlarged athletic cavity with preserved relaxation may support adaptation, while disproportionate thickness, pathological ECG changes, symptoms, scar or family history raise concern. No single wall measurement, absence of scar or detraining result definitively settles all cases. Integrate history, ECG, echo, CMR and genetics when informative. A relative with a pathogenic variant is more useful for cascade testing than an unclassified variant. [1] [2]

Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

Desmosomal disease can produce fibrotic or fibrofatty replacement and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly with strenuous endurance exercise. ARVC may show RV regional dysfunction, dilation and right-precordial T-wave inversion; an epsilon wave is neither required nor sufficient. DSP disease may be predominantly left ventricular, so do not force all desmosomal disease into an RV-only category. [1]

Takotsubo and pregnancy-associated dysfunction

Takotsubo syndrome is transient regional dysfunction that often extends beyond one coronary territory. Apical ballooning is familiar, but midventricular and basal variants occur. A stress trigger is supportive, not required. Suspected acute coronary syndrome still needs urgent evaluation; coexisting coronary disease does not exclude Takotsubo. Recovery is common, but shock, arrhythmia and thrombus can occur. [12] [25]

Peripartum cardiomyopathy is otherwise unexplained systolic HF near the end of pregnancy or after delivery, usually with EF below 45%. The traditional last-month-to-five-month window should not dismiss compatible disease outside it. Pregnancy and lactation change medication choices. During pregnancy, selected beta blockers, hydralazine with nitrates and cautious diuresis may be used as the clinical situation requires.

Postpartum treatment needs a separate review of lactation compatibility. A wearable defibrillator may bridge selected patients while recovery is assessed. During pregnancy, avoid the routine adult HFrEF package that includes renin-angiotensin inhibitors and SGLT2 inhibitors. Subsequent-pregnancy counseling depends strongly on LV recovery, but even normalized EF does not remove recurrence risk. [11]

Hypertension can cause concentric hypertrophy and HFpEF. Obesity, pulmonary vascular disease and sleep-related breathing disorders can add distinct loading stresses. Awake hypercapnia in a patient with obesity should prompt assessment for obesity hypoventilation, not attribution of all RV failure to uncomplicated sleep apnea. [3] [22]

Choose the next action and include the family

  1. Shock, sustained arrhythmia or high-grade block requires stabilization and urgent specialty care before completing phenotype classification.
  2. Thick walls prompt assessment of loading, HCM, amyloid and storage disease. Determine whether obstruction is present before using preload-reducing treatment.
  3. Dilation with reduced EF calls for coronary and cause assessment, complete tolerated HF therapy and arrhythmia evaluation.
  4. Congestion with preserved EF calls for filling and tissue assessment rather than reassurance from EF.
  5. Family disease or unexplained sudden death calls for a three-generation history, genetic counseling and clinical screening of first-degree relatives.

Offer cascade testing when the family has an established pathogenic or likely pathogenic variant. A variant of uncertain significance is not a diagnosis. When the genetic cause is unresolved, clinical surveillance remains useful. For asymptomatic at-risk HCM relatives, ECG and echo are generally repeated every 1 to 2 years in children from genotype-positive families or families with early-onset disease; other children and adolescents are generally screened every 2 to 3 years, beginning no later than puberty.

Adult intervals are generally 3 to 5 years. Symptoms or an aggressive family course shorten intervals. A relative who tests negative for the established familial pathogenic variant generally does not need ongoing HCM screening unless variant reclassification or clinical findings change the assessment. [1] [2]

Match the treatment to the mechanism, reassess the electrical risk and plan follow-up even when the patient feels better.

Try it here · Checkpoint 3 of 3

Make your prediction before reading the choices. A first attempt is just a starting point.

Case 40

A 42-year-old woman with unexplained cardiomyopathy has a genetic panel showing only a variant of uncertain significance. Her asymptomatic teenage son has not been evaluated. Which approach is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 40
  1. A. Diagnose her son with inherited cardiomyopathy from the uncertain genetic variant alone (Why this does not fit)

    Uncertain classification is not proof that the variant causes disease.

  2. B. End further clinical evaluation of the family because no pathogenic variant was identified (Why this does not fit)

    Clinical family screening can remain indicated when genetic testing is inconclusive.

  3. C. Use the uncertain genetic variant as a definitive predictive test for each family member (Why this does not fit)

    Predictive cascade testing is based on established pathogenic or likely pathogenic variants, with appropriate counseling.

  4. D. Offer genetic counseling and phenotype-based family screening during variant reassessment (Best answer)

    This maintains useful surveillance without falsely assigning disease from an uncertain genetic result.

Takeaway: An uncertain genetic result does not replace clinical screening or establish a diagnosis.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Practice phenotype, mechanism and treatment

Case 1

A 23-year-old man is evaluated after exertional syncope during basketball. Echo shows an unexplained 22-mm septum, mitral SAM and a provoked LVOT gradient of 75 mmHg. His father has the same phenotype. Which genetic finding best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 1
  1. A. A pathogenic MYBPC3 variant (Best answer)

    MYBPC3 encodes a sarcomeric regulatory protein and commonly causes autosomal dominant HCM with variable expression.

  2. B. A pathogenic LMNA variant (Why this does not fit)

    LMNA more characteristically causes a dilated or nondilated arrhythmic phenotype with conduction disease rather than this classic HCM pattern.

  3. C. A pathogenic DMD variant (Why this does not fit)

    Dystrophin disease usually combines skeletal muscle involvement with progressive dilated cardiomyopathy.

  4. D. A pathogenic PKP2 variant (Why this does not fit)

    PKP2 commonly underlies arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy, particularly an RV phenotype, rather than isolated familial septal hypertrophy.

Takeaway: Unexplained familial hypertrophy points toward sarcomeric HCM, but gene findings require clinical interpretation.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 2

A 41-year-old woman with known HCM has 6 months of dyspnea when climbing stairs. Resting LVOT gradient is 18 mmHg, LVEF 70%, and the aortic valve opens normally. Which test best assesses whether obstruction explains symptoms during activity?

Show answer and explanations for case 2
  1. A. Repeat a resting EF measurement alone (Why this does not fit)

    A high EF does not measure a provoked LVOT gradient.

  2. B. Physiologic provocation and exercise echocardiography (Best answer)

    Dynamic obstruction may emerge with loading changes or exercise despite a low resting gradient.

  3. C. A serum BNP level as the sole diagnostic test (Why this does not fit)

    BNP may reflect hemodynamic stress but cannot localize or quantify dynamic obstruction.

  4. D. Proceed directly to resting cardiac catheterization without provocation (Why this does not fit)

    Resting invasive pressures may still miss exertional obstruction. Physiologic stress echo directly addresses the unresolved symptom-gradient relationship.

Takeaway: A low resting gradient does not exclude symptomatic provoked obstruction.

Case sources: [2]

Case 3

A 36-year-old man reports 3 months of chest pressure while jogging. Echo confirms obstructive HCM with a provoked gradient of 85 mmHg and EF 72%. Blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg, pulse 88/min, and lungs are clear. Which initial medication is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 3
  1. A. Digoxin (Why this does not fit)

    Increased contractility can intensify SAM and dynamic obstruction.

  2. B. High-dose furosemide (Why this does not fit)

    There is no described congestion, and substantial preload reduction may worsen obstruction.

  3. C. Metoprolol (Best answer)

    A nonvasodilating beta blocker reduces heart rate and contractility and is first-line for symptomatic obstructive HCM.

  4. D. Nifedipine (Why this does not fit)

    Potent arterial vasodilation can worsen the dynamic gradient; it lacks the useful rate-slowing profile of verapamil or diltiazem.

Takeaway: First-line symptom treatment for obstructive HCM targets contractility and filling.

Case sources: [2]

Case 4

A 48-year-old woman with obstructive HCM develops lightheadedness after 2 days of vomiting. Blood pressure is 88/58 mmHg, lungs are clear and the LV appears underfilled with marked SAM. Hypotension persists despite appropriate monitored fluid replacement. Which vasopressor is preferable?

Show answer and explanations for case 4
  1. A. Dobutamine (Why this does not fit)

    Its beta-1 inotropy can intensify dynamic obstruction in this setting, despite its role in other low-output states.

  2. B. Dopamine at a dose with prominent beta-1 effects (Why this does not fit)

    Increased contractility and heart rate can worsen the obstructive gradient; a pressor without direct inotropy is preferred here.

  3. C. Epinephrine (Why this does not fit)

    Its beta-adrenergic effects can worsen dynamic obstruction. This stem asks for pressure support after fluid replacement, without increasing inotropy.

  4. D. Phenylephrine (Best answer)

    Predominant alpha-mediated vasoconstriction supports vascular resistance without direct beta-1 inotropic stimulation, fitting persistent hypotension with obstruction after appropriate fluids.

Takeaway: In obstructive HCM hypotension, loading and inotropy matter as much as the pressure number.

Case sources: [2]

Case 5

A 59-year-old woman with symptomatic obstructive HCM begins mavacamten after specialist assessment. She asks how it differs from her beta blocker. Which explanation is correct?

Show answer and explanations for case 5
  1. A. It reduces active interactions between actin and myosin, favoring the super-relaxed state (Best answer)

    Direct myosin inhibition reduces excessive force generation; the shift is toward the energy-sparing state.

  2. B. It recruits myosin out of the super-relaxed state to increase force (Why this does not fit)

    This reverses the direction of the drug effect and would aggravate hypercontractility.

  3. C. It selectively blocks beta-1 receptors (Why this does not fit)

    That describes metoprolol rather than a cardiac myosin inhibitor.

  4. D. It destroys the basal septum through a controlled infarction (Why this does not fit)

    That describes alcohol septal ablation, not medication action.

Takeaway: Mavacamten favors super-relaxed myosin and reduces force-producing participation.

Case sources: [5]

Case 6

A 64-year-old man taking mavacamten develops 10 days of increasing fatigue. Follow-up echo shows LVEF 46%, compared with 64% before treatment. Which action follows the US prescribing information?

Show answer and explanations for case 6
  1. A. Reduce the dose but continue treatment without interruption (Why this does not fit)

    The mavacamten algorithm requires interruption when LVEF is below 50%; dose reduction while continuing is not the initial response.

  2. B. Interrupt mavacamten and reassess using the label algorithm (Best answer)

    The label requires interruption when EF is below 50%, with clinical and echocardiographic reassessment.

  3. C. Continue unchanged until the next routine monitoring visit (Why this does not fit)

    LVEF 46% with new fatigue requires action now. Waiting for routine follow-up risks further systolic dysfunction.

  4. D. Permanently discontinue after this first decline without reassessing EF (Why this does not fit)

    Immediate interruption is required, but the label allows selected restarting after reassessment and recovery. A first decline does not by itself establish permanent discontinuation.

Takeaway: Serial EF monitoring is an active treatment requirement for mavacamten.

Case sources: [5]

Case 7

A 72-year-old woman remains markedly symptomatic from obstructive HCM despite tolerated therapy. An experienced HCM team selects alcohol septal ablation because surgical risk is high and septal coronary anatomy is suitable. How does this procedure reduce obstruction?

Show answer and explanations for case 7
  1. A. It surgically excises the hypertrophied basal septum (Why this does not fit)

    Excision describes myectomy. Alcohol ablation achieves tissue reduction through a local infarction and subsequent remodeling.

  2. B. It primarily lowers the gradient by permanently slowing the sinus node (Why this does not fit)

    Alcohol is delivered to a septal coronary branch, not the sinus node. Conduction block is a complication rather than its intended therapeutic mechanism.

  3. C. It creates a targeted septal infarction followed by remodeling (Best answer)

    The treated septal segment scars and thins, reducing obstruction. Injury to conduction tissue can cause heart block.

  4. D. It enlarges the cavity through permanent reduction of systemic vascular resistance (Why this does not fit)

    Systemic vasodilation can worsen dynamic obstruction. Septal ablation changes local obstructing anatomy.

Takeaway: Septal ablation deliberately alters obstructing tissue and carries conduction-system risk.

Case sources: [2]

Case 8

A 27-year-old man with HCM survives documented ventricular fibrillation during exercise. Electrolytes are normal and no reversible trigger is found. After stabilization, which strategy best addresses recurrent sudden-death risk?

Show answer and explanations for case 8
  1. A. Use a beta blocker alone to control symptoms during exercise (Why this does not fit)

    Symptom and gradient control do not replace protection after a ventricular fibrillation arrest.

  2. B. Use septal reduction alone to eliminate all future arrhythmias (Why this does not fit)

    Relieving obstruction does not eliminate all arrhythmic substrate.

  3. C. Avoid device implantation because the ejection fraction is preserved at 68% (Why this does not fit)

    The reduced-EF threshold used in other HF settings does not exclude secondary-prevention ICD benefit here.

  4. D. Assess for an implantable defibrillator for secondary prevention (Best answer)

    Survived VF without a reversible cause is a strong indication for ICD protection in HCM.

Takeaway: Preserved EF does not protect against recurrent malignant ventricular arrhythmia in HCM.

Case sources: [2]

Case 9

A 30-year-old woman with HCM presents with 12 hours of palpitations. ECG documents AF. She is stable, with no hypertension, diabetes, prior stroke or vascular disease. What principle should guide stroke prevention?

Show answer and explanations for case 9
  1. A. Recommend anticoagulation for clinical AF in HCM regardless of stroke-score threshold (Best answer)

    HCM-associated AF has sufficient embolic risk that the conventional score alone should not determine withholding therapy.

  2. B. Use aspirin alone for stroke prevention because she is younger than 65 (Why this does not fit)

    Age alone does not negate the HCM-specific embolic risk, and aspirin does not substitute for indicated anticoagulation.

  3. C. Defer anticoagulation until she develops an additional conventional stroke risk factor (Why this does not fit)

    Clinical AF in HCM has a guideline anticoagulation indication independent of the conventional score; waiting for another risk factor is not appropriate.

  4. D. Base anticoagulation solely on whether resting LVOT obstruction is present (Why this does not fit)

    Stroke prevention in clinical HCM-associated AF is not conditional on a particular obstructive gradient.

Takeaway: HCM with clinical AF changes the anticoagulation decision.

Case sources: [2]

Case 10

A 38-year-old woman with stable HCM has no recent syncope or ventricular arrhythmia and wants to begin moderate recreational cycling. She has completed specialist risk assessment. Which counseling best matches current guidance?

Show answer and explanations for case 10
  1. A. Restrict activity to light household tasks because of the HCM diagnosis (Why this does not fit)

    Routine exclusion from moderate recreational activity is not recommended after individualized evaluation; the proposed activity fits the recommended recreational range.

  2. B. Encourage mild to moderate recreation with a personalized exercise plan (Best answer)

    Current guidance supports recreational exercise; higher-intensity or competitive activity needs additional shared assessment.

  3. C. Approve competitive racing on the basis of her preserved ejection fraction alone (Why this does not fit)

    Competitive participation needs broader expert risk assessment and shared decisions; EF alone is insufficient.

  4. D. Implant a defibrillator solely to allow her to participate in sports (Why this does not fit)

    An ICD should follow clinical risk indications, not serve as a shortcut to sports clearance.

Takeaway: Exercise advice in HCM is individualized, not a universal prohibition.

Case sources: [2]

Case 11

A 44-year-old man has 7 months of progressive dyspnea. Echo shows LV end-diastolic diameter 69 mm and EF 26%. Coronary evaluation is unrevealing. His sister has DCM, and testing identifies a pathogenic truncating TTN variant. Which mechanism best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 11
  1. A. Transthyretin deposition in the extracellular myocardium (Why this does not fit)

    TTN encodes titin, not transthyretin. The gene names represent different proteins and diseases.

  2. B. Primary calcific aortic obstruction (Why this does not fit)

    No valve obstruction is described, and the familial molecular finding supports myocardial disease.

  3. C. Impaired sarcomeric structure and mechanical function (Best answer)

    Titin contributes to sarcomere mechanics; pathogenic truncating variants are a common genetic cause of DCM.

  4. D. Absent alpha-galactosidase A with lysosomal lipid storage (Why this does not fit)

    That is Fabry disease caused by GLA variants, not TTN-related DCM.

Takeaway: Titin-related cardiomyopathy commonly presents with dilation and systolic dysfunction.

Case sources: [1]

Case 12

A 40-year-old woman with a pathogenic LMNA variant reports recurrent presyncope. She has AV conduction disease, nonsustained VT and LVEF 44%. Her father died suddenly at 42. Which approach is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 12
  1. A. Defer arrhythmia assessment until EF falls below 35% (Why this does not fit)

    LMNA-related arrhythmic risk may be important before severe EF decline.

  2. B. Plan a conventional pacemaker without assessing defibrillator need (Why this does not fit)

    Pacing may address bradycardia but does not provide defibrillation for malignant ventricular arrhythmias; her genotype and rhythm history warrant broader assessment.

  3. C. Treat presyncope as vasovagal without rhythm assessment because EF is above 40% (Why this does not fit)

    Conduction disease, NSVT and familial sudden death require assessment for an arrhythmic cause despite moderately preserved EF.

  4. D. Refer for genotype-informed arrhythmic risk and device assessment (Best answer)

    Variant, family history, ventricular arrhythmia and conduction phenotype should be integrated rather than applying EF alone.

Takeaway: In genetic cardiomyopathy, conduction disease and scar can matter before a conventional EF threshold.

Case sources: [1] [3]

Case 13

A 51-year-old man has 8 months of dyspnea and edema after many years of heavy alcohol intake. Echo shows a dilated LV and EF 24%; coronary assessment does not show explanatory disease. What plan best addresses both cause and syndrome?

Show answer and explanations for case 13
  1. A. Support sustained abstinence, assess nutrition and start tolerated HF guideline therapy (Best answer)

    Alcohol toxicity and nutritional contributors should be addressed while treating systolic HF. Recovery is possible but not guaranteed.

  2. B. Treat congestion with a loop diuretic and reassess before offering disease-modifying HF therapy (Why this does not fit)

    Diuretics relieve fluid retention but do not replace appropriate foundational therapy while the cause is addressed.

  3. C. Provide thiamine replacement as the entire treatment plan for his cardiac disease (Why this does not fit)

    Nutritional deficiency should be treated when suspected, but this low-EF dilated phenotype also requires HF therapy and sustained alcohol abstinence.

  4. D. Refer directly for cardiac transplantation without treating reversible contributors (Why this does not fit)

    Advanced-therapy referral may be needed in refractory HF, but the stem has not established failure of abstinence, nutritional support and appropriate HF therapy.

Takeaway: Treat the exposure and the ventricular dysfunction together.

Case sources: [1] [3]

Case 14

A 46-year-old man with severe dietary restriction and heavy alcohol use develops 3 weeks of edema and dyspnea. He has warm extremities, bounding pulses, low systemic vascular resistance and lactate 5.1 mmol/L. Which deficiency is most important to treat promptly?

Show answer and explanations for case 14
  1. A. Vitamin B12 (Why this does not fit)

    B12 deficiency may cause anemia and neurologic disease but is less consistent with this nutritional high-output cardiovascular presentation.

  2. B. Thiamine (Best answer)

    Deficiency can impair oxidative metabolism and produce vasodilatory high-output HF, classically wet beriberi.

  3. C. Vitamin K (Why this does not fit)

    Deficiency impairs coagulation rather than primarily producing high-output cardiac failure.

  4. D. Vitamin A (Why this does not fit)

    Deficiency primarily affects vision and epithelial function, not this hemodynamic and metabolic pattern.

Takeaway: Wet beriberi differs from typical low-output alcohol-related DCM and requires prompt replacement.

Case sources: [27] [28]

Case 15

A 28-year-old woman has chest discomfort and dyspnea for 9 days after a respiratory illness. High-sensitivity troponin is 480 ng/L, with assay upper limit 14 ng/L. Coronary evaluation is normal; CMR shows edema and subepicardial enhancement. Which conclusion is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 15
  1. A. Identify Coxsackie B as the causative organism on the basis of the respiratory prodrome (Why this does not fit)

    A preceding respiratory illness does not identify a pathogen; CMR identifies a pattern of injury rather than viral species.

  2. B. Start high-dose immunosuppression on the basis of the myocardial CMR pattern alone (Why this does not fit)

    Immunosuppression depends on the suspected subtype and context; imaging evidence of inflammation does not establish a universal indication.

  3. C. Myocardial inflammation is supported; assess further by severity and suspected cause (Best answer)

    CMR can support myocarditis, but the mechanism and etiology require context rather than organism guessing.

  4. D. Diagnose transient ischemia as the established cause because angiography is normal (Why this does not fit)

    Normal epicardial coronaries do not explain the inflammatory CMR pattern; additional assessment follows clinical severity and differential diagnosis.

Takeaway: CMR can support myocarditis without identifying its organism or establishing a universal treatment.

Case sources: [18]

Case 16

A 57-year-old man develops progressive dyspnea 4 months after completing doxorubicin-containing chemotherapy. LVEF has fallen from 61% to 33%, with global hypokinesis. What is the best interpretation?

Show answer and explanations for case 16
  1. A. Withhold HF therapy until repeat imaging establishes whether the injury is reversible (Why this does not fit)

    A substantial EF decline with symptoms warrants HF care now while the cause and course are assessed.

  2. B. Attribute the decline to coronary vasospasm without investigating other mechanisms (Why this does not fit)

    Doxorubicin-associated myocardial injury is a credible cause. Coronary mechanisms and alternatives require evidence rather than assumption.

  3. C. Classify the dysfunction as unrelated to chemotherapy because baseline EF was normal (Why this does not fit)

    Normal baseline function does not prevent later treatment-associated dysfunction; comparison with baseline helps identify the change.

  4. D. Possible cancer therapy-related cardiac dysfunction warrants HF treatment and cardio-oncology review (Best answer)

    The exposure and EF trajectory support toxicity assessment while considering alternate causes and optimizing care.

Takeaway: Anthracycline-associated EF decline requires treatment and individualized prognosis, not automatic therapeutic pessimism.

Case sources: [10]

Case 17

A 50-year-old woman receiving trastuzumab for HER2-positive breast cancer has an asymptomatic EF decline from 62% to 47% on surveillance. She has no congestion. Which management principle is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 17
  1. A. Coordinate cardioprotective treatment, monitoring and cancer-therapy decisions with cardio-oncology (Best answer)

    The clinical severity and oncologic benefit guide continuation or interruption; a rigid reversible-versus-irreversible label is insufficient.

  2. B. Permanently stop trastuzumab in every asymptomatic patient with EF 40% to 49% (Why this does not fit)

    The 2022 ESC approach permits continuation in selected asymptomatic moderate dysfunction with cardioprotection and frequent monitoring, after multidisciplinary assessment.

  3. C. Continue the oncology regimen without cardiac treatment or closer monitoring (Why this does not fit)

    An asymptomatic EF decline still warrants cardioprotection and monitoring; absence of congestion does not make it inconsequential.

  4. D. Use a loop diuretic alone to treat the measured EF decline (Why this does not fit)

    She has no congestion, and a diuretic alone does not address the systolic dysfunction or the need to coordinate ongoing cancer treatment.

Takeaway: Cancer treatment decisions should integrate EF, symptoms, risk and cancer benefit.

Case sources: [10]

Case 18

A 63-year-old man with stable nonischemic HFrEF remains NYHA class II with LVEF 30%. He takes sacubitril/valsartan, carvedilol and spironolactone. eGFR is 65 mL/min/1.73 m² and potassium is 4.3 mmol/L. He is in sinus rhythm, has no separate indication for anticoagulation and does not have diabetes. Which additional class provides foundational HF treatment?

Show answer and explanations for case 18
  1. A. A dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (Why this does not fit)

    This may treat hypertension but does not complete the four foundational HFrEF classes.

  2. B. An SGLT2 inhibitor (Best answer)

    SGLT2 inhibitors benefit eligible HFrEF patients regardless of diabetes status.

  3. C. Ivabradine regardless of resting heart rate (Why this does not fit)

    Ivabradine is an adjunct for selected patients in sinus rhythm with sufficiently high resting heart rate despite beta blockade; it does not replace the missing foundational SGLT2 class.

  4. D. Routine oral anticoagulation solely for reduced EF (Why this does not fit)

    Reduced EF in sinus rhythm without another indication does not automatically require anticoagulation.

Takeaway: SGLT2 therapy is a heart-failure treatment even without diabetes.

Case sources: [3]

Case 19

A 67-year-old woman has NYHA class III symptoms and LVEF 29% after 6 months of tolerated HF therapy. ECG shows sinus rhythm, LBBB and QRS duration 166 ms. Expected survival with good functional status exceeds a year. Which intervention should be assessed?

Show answer and explanations for case 19
  1. A. Implant a conventional RV pacemaker to correct the wide QRS (Why this does not fit)

    A wide LBBB QRS in symptomatic HFrEF is a setting for resynchronization assessment; conventional RV pacing does not provide equivalent biventricular coordination.

  2. B. Implant a defibrillator alone without evaluating resynchronization (Why this does not fit)

    A defibrillator may be appropriate, but it does not address the mechanical dyssynchrony for which she meets strong CRT assessment criteria.

  3. C. Assess CRT, choosing defibrillator capability according to her risk (Best answer)

    The combination of low EF, persistent symptoms and broad LBBB fits a strong CRT indication.

  4. D. Defer assessment for resynchronization until QRS duration exceeds 200 ms (Why this does not fit)

    A 150-ms LBBB threshold already identifies a strong-benefit group in the appropriate symptomatic, treated patient; waiting for 200 ms is unnecessary.

Takeaway: CRT eligibility combines EF, symptoms, rhythm, conduction pattern and treatment context.

Case sources: [3]

Case 20

A 45-year-old man with previous DCM now has EF 57%, normal LV size and no symptoms after 2 years of treatment. He asks to stop all HF drugs. Which advice is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 20
  1. A. Withdraw all therapy because LV size and EF have normalized (Why this does not fit)

    Recovery can represent remission. TRED-HF found substantial relapse after supervised withdrawal even among apparently recovered patients.

  2. B. Base medication withdrawal on a single normal natriuretic peptide result (Why this does not fit)

    A normal marker does not establish permanent resolution or ensure safe withdrawal; the whole history and relapse evidence matter.

  3. C. Replace the disease-modifying regimen with a loop diuretic alone (Why this does not fit)

    A diuretic treats congestion and is not a substitute for therapies maintaining remission in recovered DCM.

  4. D. Continue indicated therapy and discuss any change with his HF team (Best answer)

    TRED-HF found frequent relapse after withdrawal even among selected recovered DCM patients.

Takeaway: Recovered EF often represents remission maintained by treatment.

Case sources: [3] [17]

Case 21

A 74-year-old man has 10 months of exertional dyspnea, bilateral carpal tunnel surgery history, increased LV wall thickness and low ECG voltage. Which initial laboratory combination best assesses for a monoclonal process before a nonbiopsy ATTR pathway?

Show answer and explanations for case 21
  1. A. Serum free light chains plus serum and urine immunofixation (Best answer)

    The complete screen is necessary; ordinary electrophoresis alone can miss a monoclonal process.

  2. B. Serum protein electrophoresis alone (Why this does not fit)

    This lacks sufficient sensitivity to exclude AL.

  3. C. Serum free light chains and serum immunofixation without urine immunofixation (Why this does not fit)

    This omits part of the complete monoclonal screen. Serum and urine immunofixation plus free light chains are used together before the nonbiopsy pathway.

  4. D. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis without immunofixation (Why this does not fit)

    Ordinary electrophoresis is insufficiently sensitive to replace immunofixation and free light protein testing for this purpose.

Takeaway: Use all three components of the monoclonal screen before relying on bone scintigraphy for ATTR.

Case sources: [4]

Case 22

A 71-year-old woman has suspected cardiac amyloidosis. PYP imaging with SPECT confirms grade 3 myocardial uptake, but serum immunofixation detects a monoclonal protein. Which next step is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 22
  1. A. Diagnose wild-type ATTR from the myocardial uptake on the PYP scan alone (Why this does not fit)

    A monoclonal protein prevents a simple nonbiopsy ATTR conclusion, and wild-type status also requires genetic assessment.

  2. B. Seek specialist review and tissue confirmation with amyloid typing (Best answer)

    The monoclonal protein could reflect AL or coexist with ATTR. Tissue typing resolves the treatment-changing distinction.

  3. C. Diagnose AL cardiac amyloidosis from the monoclonal protein alone (Why this does not fit)

    A monoclonal protein can coexist with ATTR or another cause of thickening. Tissue demonstration and reliable amyloid typing are needed in this branch.

  4. D. Repeat the PYP scan and accept ATTR if grade 3 myocardial uptake persists (Why this does not fit)

    Repeated uptake does not resolve the monoclonal-protein ambiguity. The problem is amyloid type, not reproducibility of the scan.

Takeaway: Positive bone-tracer imaging does not settle amyloid type when monoclonal testing is abnormal.

Case sources: [4]

Case 24

A 69-year-old woman with confirmed ATTR-CM discusses treatment options in 2026. Which statement accurately distinguishes two approaches?

Show answer and explanations for case 24
  1. A. Tafamidis reduces hepatic TTR synthesis, while vutrisiran stabilizes circulating TTR (Why this does not fit)

    This reverses the two mechanisms. Tafamidis stabilizes the tetramer; vutrisiran suppresses TTR production through RNA interference.

  2. B. Vutrisiran is approved only for neuropathy and cannot be used for ATTR-CM (Why this does not fit)

    Its US indication expanded to ATTR-CM in March 2025.

  3. C. Acoramidis is an inotrope used to increase LV contractility (Why this does not fit)

    Acoramidis stabilizes TTR rather than acting as a conventional positive inotrope.

  4. D. Tafamidis or acoramidis stabilizes TTR; vutrisiran reduces hepatic TTR production (Best answer)

    These approaches target different steps in ATTR biology. Vutrisiran also requires attention to vitamin A supplementation.

Takeaway: Current ATTR treatment extends beyond a single stabilizer and remains distinct from AL treatment.

Case sources: [4] [7] [8]

Case 25

A 39-year-old woman with biopsy-confirmed pulmonary sarcoidosis has recurrent syncope for a week. ECG shows complete AV block with a ventricular rate of 34/min. CMR shows patchy basal septal scar. What mechanism best explains the conduction disease?

Show answer and explanations for case 25
  1. A. Granulomatous inflammation and fibrosis involving conduction tissue (Best answer)

    Sarcoid inflammation and later scar can disrupt AV and ventricular conduction. Stabilization and device-risk assessment are urgent.

  2. B. TTR tetramer dissociation alone (Why this does not fit)

    That describes ATTR biology and does not explain the established granulomatous disease.

  3. C. Physiological athletic vagal tone (Why this does not fit)

    Complete block with syncope and septal scar is not a benign training adaptation.

  4. D. Aortic valve calcification without myocardial involvement (Why this does not fit)

    No aortic lesion is described; the systemic diagnosis and tissue pattern favor cardiac sarcoid.

Takeaway: High-grade block in a younger patient can be a cardiac sarcoidosis presentation, not just a pacing problem.

Case sources: [9]

Case 26

A 49-year-old man with hereditary hemochromatosis has exertional fatigue, transferrin saturation 84% and ferritin 2100 ng/mL. Cardiac MRI detects myocardial iron; EF is 46%. He is stable without anemia. Which treatment principle is most appropriate?

Show answer and explanations for case 26
  1. A. Select chelation automatically because any detectable cardiac iron makes phlebotomy unsuitable (Why this does not fit)

    Cardiac involvement alone is not an absolute prohibition. Stability, anemia, tolerance and severity guide whether phlebotomy is suitable.

  2. B. Use specialist-directed iron depletion, usually phlebotomy when suitable, with chelation for selected circumstances (Best answer)

    Hereditary iron overload often responds to phlebotomy; severe cardiac disease or inability to tolerate bloodletting can alter the approach.

  3. C. Use dietary iron restriction alone before considering iron-depletion therapy (Why this does not fit)

    Dietary changes alone do not adequately treat established organ iron overload; specialist-directed depletion is needed.

  4. D. Defer iron depletion until LVEF is below 35% (Why this does not fit)

    Documented organ overload warrants treatment assessment before advanced systolic dysfunction develops; 35% is not an iron-treatment threshold.

Takeaway: Select iron-depletion treatment for the cause and clinical tolerance, not a blanket cardiac exception.

Case sources: [13]

Case 27

A 56-year-old man has 6 months of dyspnea and an absolute eosinophil count of 5200/µL. CMR shows endocardial fibrosis, apical cavity obliteration and an apical thrombus. Which process best connects these findings?

Show answer and explanations for case 27
  1. A. Isolated high blood viscosity from this eosinophil count (Why this does not fit)

    The characteristic endomyocardial injury is not explained by viscosity alone.

  2. B. Primary aortic stenosis causing concentric hypertrophy (Why this does not fit)

    No valve obstruction is described and it does not account for the eosinophilic endocardial pattern.

  3. C. Endomyocardial injury from eosinophils, with blood clot formation and fibrosis (Best answer)

    Toxic inflammatory injury can promote mural clot and later fibrosis; the stages can overlap.

  4. D. Benign physiologic apical thickening (Why this does not fit)

    Fibrosis and thrombus with marked eosinophilia require disease evaluation, not reassurance.

Takeaway: Eosinophilic cardiac disease can combine injury, thrombosis and restriction in the same patient.

Case sources: [20]

Case 28

A 34-year-old man has years of burning hand and foot pain, hypohidrosis and proteinuria. He now reports exertional fatigue. Examination shows angiokeratomas, and echo shows concentric LV thickening without hypertension. Which defect best explains the multisystem pattern?

Show answer and explanations for case 28
  1. A. Beta-glucocerebrosidase deficiency (Why this does not fit)

    Gaucher disease classically emphasizes reticuloendothelial and skeletal involvement rather than this specific renal, neuropathic and cardiac combination.

  2. B. Acid alpha-glucosidase deficiency (Why this does not fit)

    Infantile Pompe can cause hypertrophy but the adult neuropathic, cutaneous and renal pattern favors Fabry.

  3. C. Frataxin deficiency (Why this does not fit)

    Friedreich ataxia can involve the heart but usually features a prominent neurologic ataxic syndrome rather than angiokeratomas and acroparesthesias.

  4. D. Alpha-galactosidase A deficiency (Best answer)

    GLA-related Fabry disease produces glycosphingolipid accumulation with these characteristic organ manifestations.

Takeaway: A hypertrophic phenotype with renal and neuropathic findings should trigger a phenocopy search.

Case sources: [15]

Case 29

A 17-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy reports no exertional symptoms but has limited mobility. Surveillance CMR shows LV fibrosis and early systolic impairment. Why is routine cardiac surveillance necessary?

Show answer and explanations for case 29
  1. A. Dystrophin-related heart disease can progress before exercise symptoms are recognized (Best answer)

    Limited activity can conceal symptoms, while structural cardiomyocyte injury and fibrosis evolve.

  2. B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy affects skeletal muscle but does not affect the heart (Why this does not fit)

    Dystrophin deficiency also affects cardiomyocytes.

  3. C. The absence of exertional dyspnea establishes that his cardiac function is normal (Why this does not fit)

    Symptoms may be insensitive when mobility is limited; imaging has already detected disease.

  4. D. Routine cardiac surveillance is chiefly intended to detect coronary atherosclerosis (Why this does not fit)

    The main concern at this age is dystrophin-related cardiomyocyte injury and fibrosis, rather than acquired coronary plaque.

Takeaway: In neuromuscular disease, cardiac surveillance cannot depend on exercise symptoms alone.

Case sources: [16]

Case 30

A 48-year-old man with confirmed chronic T. cruzi infection develops 4 months of palpitations and presyncope. ECG shows RBBB with left anterior fascicular block. Echo shows EF 36% and an apical aneurysm. Which interpretation is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 30
  1. A. This is the indeterminate phase because the infection is chronic (Why this does not fit)

    Indeterminate infection lacks established cardiac manifestations; he has electrical and structural disease.

  2. B. Chronic Chagas heart disease with associated risk of arrhythmia and thromboembolism (Best answer)

    Conduction abnormalities and apical aneurysm are recognized chronic cardiac manifestations and warrant targeted cardiac management.

  3. C. Antiparasitic treatment alone will reliably reverse the aneurysm (Why this does not fit)

    Established structural disease does not reliably reverse with antiparasitic therapy.

  4. D. Absence of megacolon would exclude Chagas cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    Gastrointestinal disease need not accompany cardiac involvement.

Takeaway: Chronic infection can become clinically important cardiac disease without gastrointestinal manifestations.

Case sources: [14]

Case 31

A 62-year-old man has 8 months of edema and ascites after prior pericarditis. LV cavity size is normal and EF is 60%. Echo shows respiratory septal shift, medial mitral e′ of 11 cm/s and prominent expiratory hepatic venous diastolic reversal. Which diagnosis is best supported?

Show answer and explanations for case 31
  1. A. Dilated cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    Normal cavity size and EF with characteristic respiratory physiology do not fit a dilated systolic pattern.

  2. B. Restrictive myocardial disease from cardiac amyloidosis (Why this does not fit)

    Amyloid can cause similar congestion, but preserved medial e-prime and the respiratory septal and hepatic-flow findings favor constriction in combination.

  3. C. Constrictive pericarditis (Best answer)

    The combination of septal shift, preserved medial annular velocity and hepatic venous findings supports pericardial constraint.

  4. D. Severe tricuspid regurgitation (Why this does not fit)

    TR can cause systemic congestion and hepatic systolic flow reversal. The specified expiratory diastolic reversal with respiratory septal shift instead supports pericardial constraint.

Takeaway: Use an integrated respiratory echo pattern to distinguish constriction from myocardial restriction.

Case sources: [19]

Case 32

A 46-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis has 6 months of dyspnea and palpitations. CMR shows patchy myocardial fibrosis. Coronary disease, significant pulmonary hypertension, severe systemic hypertension and major valve disease have been excluded. Which mechanism best explains primary myocardial involvement?

Show answer and explanations for case 32
  1. A. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance alone producing isolated RV pressure loading (Why this does not fit)

    The assessment has excluded significant pulmonary hypertension and identified direct myocardial abnormalities.

  2. B. Ischemic scar from obstructive epicardial coronary disease (Why this does not fit)

    This is an alternative source of myocardial fibrosis, but explanatory coronary disease has been excluded in the stem.

  3. C. ATTR infiltration unrelated to systemic sclerosis (Why this does not fit)

    ATTR is a separate differential diagnosis requiring specific evidence and typing. Systemic sclerosis does not establish it; the described evaluation supports primary sclerosis-related involvement.

  4. D. Sclerosis-related inflammation, microvascular injury and myocardial fibrosis (Best answer)

    These are recognized components of primary systemic sclerosis heart involvement after secondary causes are assessed.

Takeaway: Separate primary myocardial sclerosis-related disease from pulmonary, renal and coronary contributors.

Case sources: [21]

Case 33

A 21-year-old male distance runner has recurrent exertional palpitations and one syncopal episode. ECG shows T-wave inversion in V1 through V3; CMR shows regional RV akinesia with dilation. His family has a pathogenic PKP2 variant. Which diagnosis best fits?

Show answer and explanations for case 33
  1. A. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (Best answer)

    The combination of RV structural disease, electrical findings and desmosomal family genetics supports ARVC.

  2. B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    No unexplained LV thickening or SAM is described; the dominant abnormality is regional RV disease.

  3. C. Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT in an otherwise structurally normal heart (Why this does not fit)

    CPVT can cause exercise-related arrhythmia but does not explain this structural RV phenotype.

  4. D. Benign athlete adaptation (Why this does not fit)

    Regional akinesia, syncope and a pathogenic family variant cannot be dismissed as normal endurance adaptation.

Takeaway: Diagnose arrhythmogenic disease from combined criteria, not an epsilon wave alone.

Case sources: [1]

Case 34

A 25-year-old male cyclist has no symptoms but a brother with HCM. Screening shows LV wall thickness of 13 mm and a large LV cavity with preserved relaxation. Which next approach is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 34
  1. A. Diagnose hypertrophic cardiomyopathy solely because LV wall thickness exceeds 12 mm (Why this does not fit)

    A borderline measurement requires context, especially in an athlete.

  2. B. Combine family genetics, ECG, imaging and expert follow-up before clearance (Best answer)

    Athletic features do not cancel a relevant family history. Multiple findings and targeted genetics can clarify the phenotype.

  3. C. Permanently exclude hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because the LV cavity is enlarged (Why this does not fit)

    Cavity size is informative but not an absolute exclusion test.

  4. D. Require myocardial biopsy as part of every cardiac screening evaluation in athletes (Why this does not fit)

    Biopsy is not the routine solution to this diagnostic gray zone.

Takeaway: A gray-zone athletic heart needs integrated assessment rather than a single cutoff or detraining guarantee.

Case sources: [1] [2]

Case 35

A 67-year-old woman develops acute chest pain after major surgery. ECG shows anterior ST elevation and troponin is increased. Urgent coronary evaluation shows no culprit lesion. Imaging shows circumferential mid-apical akinesia beyond one coronary territory with basal hyperkinesis. CMR shows edema without an infarction or typical myocarditis enhancement pattern, and follow-up imaging shows recovery of systolic function. Which diagnosis best integrates the acute findings and subsequent course?

Show answer and explanations for case 35
  1. A. Acute myocarditis (Why this does not fit)

    Myocarditis remains an initial differential, but the circumferential dysfunction, CMR assessment and recovery together favor Takotsubo in this case. Absence of enhancement alone would not exclude myocarditis.

  2. B. Acute infarction confined to a single LAD territory (Why this does not fit)

    The dysfunction extends beyond a single territory and the coronary and CMR findings do not support an infarction explaining this pattern.

  3. C. Takotsubo syndrome (Best answer)

    A physical trigger and transient regional pattern beyond one vascular territory support stress-associated myocardial dysfunction.

  4. D. Tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy (Why this does not fit)

    That requires a sufficient sustained arrhythmia burden, which is absent here. The acute regional pattern and postoperative setting favor Takotsubo.

Takeaway: Takotsubo can follow physical stress and still requires acute cardiac care.

Case sources: [12] [25]

Case 37

A 33-year-old woman had PPCM 2 years ago. Her EF improved from 22% to 56% on therapy, and she asks about another pregnancy. Which counseling is best?

Show answer and explanations for case 37
  1. A. Recovery lowers but does not remove recurrence risk; seek expert preconception counseling (Best answer)

    Residual vulnerability may persist despite normalized EF, and medication planning and monitoring need specialist coordination.

  2. B. Reassure that normalized EF makes recurrence negligible and routine obstetric care sufficient (Why this does not fit)

    Normalization improves prognosis but does not eliminate relapse; specialized preconception and pregnancy assessment remain appropriate.

  3. C. Recommend permanent avoidance of pregnancy solely because PPCM occurred, without reassessing recovery (Why this does not fit)

    Risk is individualized using ventricular recovery and the prior course. A blanket conclusion without reassessment is not adequate counseling.

  4. D. Use a single normal BNP as sufficient clearance for pregnancy (Why this does not fit)

    One biomarker does not capture recurrent dysfunction risk or medication and pregnancy planning needs.

Takeaway: PPCM recovery is important for counseling but is not a guarantee of future pregnancy safety.

Case sources: [11]

Case 38

A 73-year-old woman with years of poorly controlled hypertension has 8 months of exertional dyspnea and edema. Blood pressure is 174/96 mmHg. Echo shows concentric LV thickening, EF 61%, impaired relaxation and increased filling pressures without LVOT obstruction. What most directly explains the congestion?

Show answer and explanations for case 38
  1. A. Pulmonary vascular disease alone without increased left-sided filling pressure (Why this does not fit)

    Right-sided disease can contribute to dyspnea, but the stem specifically documents increased LV filling pressure and impaired relaxation.

  2. B. A stiff LV requires higher filling pressure, transmitted upstream (Best answer)

    Hypertensive remodeling can impair compliance, raising LA and pulmonary venous pressure despite preserved EF.

  3. C. A dynamic LV outflow gradient caused by septal-mitral interaction (Why this does not fit)

    The echo explicitly finds no LVOT obstruction. Concentric thickening alone does not establish the dynamic obstructive mechanism.

  4. D. Reduced EF from advanced global systolic dysfunction (Why this does not fit)

    The EF is preserved in this case. High filling pressures can cause congestion without a reduced EF.

Takeaway: HFpEF can cause congestion because the pressure cost of filling is high.

Case sources: [3]

Case 39

A 55-year-old man with BMI 43 kg/m² has months of daytime sleepiness, edema and exertional dyspnea. Sleep testing shows severe obstructive sleep apnea. Awake arterial PaCO2 is 52 mmHg, and alternate causes of hypoventilation are excluded. Echo shows RV dilation with pulmonary pressure loading. Which additional diagnosis should guide respiratory treatment?

Show answer and explanations for case 39
  1. A. COPD with chronic hypercapnic respiratory failure (Why this does not fit)

    COPD can cause hypercapnia and RV pressure loading, but alternate causes of hypoventilation have been excluded in this stem.

  2. B. Neuromuscular ventilatory failure (Why this does not fit)

    Respiratory muscle disease is another cause to exclude; the specified evaluation instead supports obesity-associated awake hypoventilation.

  3. C. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome (Best answer)

    Obesity, sleep-disordered breathing and awake hypercapnia fit OHS, which can add pulmonary vascular and right-heart burden.

  4. D. Obstructive sleep apnea without awake hypoventilation (Why this does not fit)

    An awake PaCO2 of 52 mmHg demonstrates daytime hypercapnia, so isolated nocturnal obstruction is an incomplete diagnosis.

Takeaway: Daytime hypercapnia changes the respiratory differential and should not be hidden under an OSA label.

Case sources: [22]

Case 41

A 58-year-old man with nonischemic DCM and midwall fibrosis has recurrent sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. During a planned electrophysiology procedure after stabilization, mapping identifies slow conduction through viable myocardium adjacent to scar; pacing entrains the tachycardia. Which mechanism best explains this rhythm?

Show answer and explanations for case 41
  1. A. Reentry through surviving myocardial bundles within a fibrotic substrate (Best answer)

    Slow conduction, block and entrainment support a circulating impulse through viable tissue associated with scar.

  2. B. Enhanced automaticity from a single ventricular focus (Why this does not fit)

    A focal automatic rhythm does not account as well for the mapped slow-conduction circuit and demonstrated entrainment.

  3. C. Early afterdepolarizations producing torsades de pointes (Why this does not fit)

    That mechanism typically produces pause-dependent polymorphic VT with prolonged repolarization, not the mapped sustained monomorphic circuit.

  4. D. Atrioventricular nodal reentry with bundle branch aberrancy (Why this does not fit)

    AV nodal reentry is supraventricular; the study instead identifies and entrains a ventricular scar-associated circuit.

Takeaway: Fibrosis supports reentry by disrupting conduction in surviving myocardium; dense scar is not itself electrically conducting.

Case sources: [32]

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